NEET-PG 2012 - Obstetrics and Gynecology Practice Questions

Q: Preferred treatment for menorrhagia in reproductive age group?

OCPs. ***OCPs*** - **Combined oral contraceptives (OCPs)** are a common and effective first-line treatment for menorrhagia in reproductive-aged women, particularly when contraception is also desired. - They work by stabilizing the **endometrial lining**, reducing menstrual blood loss and regulating cycles. *NOVA T* - NOVA T is a type of **copper IUD (intrauterine device)**, which is known to potentially *increase* menstrual bleeding and dysmenorrhea, making it unsuitable for menorrhagia. - Its primary function is contraception, not the management of heavy menstrual bleeding. *Cu IUD* - The **copper intrauterine device (Cu IUD)** is generally contraindicated in women with menorrhagia because it can exacerbate heavy menstrual bleeding. - While an effective contraceptive, it does not offer therapeutic benefits for managing heavy periods. *Hysterectomy* - **Hysterectomy** is a surgical procedure for removing the uterus and is considered a definitive treatment for menorrhagia. - However, it is an **invasive procedure** with irreversible loss of fertility, typically reserved for severe cases where conservative treatments have failed or when other uterine pathology is present.

Q: Which condition is associated with exclusively fetal blood loss?

Vasa previa. ***Vasa previa*** - Vasa previa occurs when **fetal blood vessels** from the umbilical cord traverse the membranes over the cervical os, underneath the fetal presenting part. - Rupture of these unprotected vessels, which can happen during labor or membrane rupture, leads to **exclusively fetal blood loss**, posing a high risk of fetal exsanguination and death. *Placenta praevia* - This condition involves the **placenta implanting low** in the uterus, potentially covering the internal cervical os. - Bleeding in placenta previa is typically **maternal** in origin, resulting from the detachment of the placenta from the uterine wall as the cervix dilates. *Polyhydramnios* - Polyhydramnios is characterized by an **excessive amount of amniotic fluid**. - It is not directly associated with antepartum or intrapartum bleeding, but rather with conditions that affect fetal swallowing or urination, such as **fetal gastrointestinal anomalies** or maternal diabetes. *Oligohydramnios* - Oligohydramnios refers to an **insufficient amount of amniotic fluid**. - While it can be associated with various fetal and maternal complications, such as **renal agenesis** or premature rupture of membranes, it does not typically cause blood loss.

Q: In which gestational weeks is Hegar's sign typically observed?

6 to 10 weeks. ***6 to 10 weeks*** - **Hegar's sign** is a softening of the lower uterine segment, which is a probable sign of pregnancy detected during a **bimanual examination**. - This softening typically becomes noticeable and palpable between **6 and 10 weeks of gestation** due to increased vascularity and edema in the area. *10-14 weeks* - While the uterus continues to soften and enlarge, **Hegar's sign** is usually established earlier, making it less specific or prominent for confirmation in this later window. - At this stage, other signs of pregnancy, such as a **palpable fetal outline** or **fetal heart tones**, become more readily apparent. *14-18 weeks* - By this gestational period, the uterus is significantly larger and has risen out of the pelvic cavity, making the specific assessment of the **lower uterine segment's compressibility** as an isolated sign less relevant. - **Fetal movements** (quickening) may also be felt during this time, serving as a more direct indicator of pregnancy. *18-22 weeks* - At these later weeks, the uterus is distinctly enlarged, and much of the diagnosis relies on **fundal height assessment** and further monitoring of fetal development. - **Hegar's sign** is a very early sign of pregnancy and would not be used for confirmation in this advanced stage.

Q: What is the most reliable test to confirm ovulation after it has occurred?

Serum progesterone. ***Serum progesterone*** - A **serum progesterone level** of greater than **3 ng/mL (or 10 nmol/L)** in the mid-luteal phase (approximately 7 days after the presumed ovulation) reliably indicates that ovulation has occurred. - After ovulation, the **corpus luteum** forms and produces progesterone, causing a characteristic rise in its serum level. *Serum estrogen* - Estrogen levels **peak before ovulation** to trigger the LH surge and also rise during the luteal phase, but a single measurement is not a reliable indicator that ovulation has successfully occurred. - Estrogen levels can fluctuate due to various factors and do not directly confirm the **formation and function of a corpus luteum** as progesterone does. *Both serum estrogen and progesterone* - While both hormones are involved in the menstrual cycle, relying on both simultaneously for confirming *occurred* ovulation is not the most precise method. - A significant rise in **progesterone** *after* the presumed ovulatory event is the key reliable biomarker. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **serum progesterone** is a well-established and reliable test for confirming ovulation.

Q: The optimal timing for external cephalic version (ECV) is

36 weeks. ***36 weeks*** - At **36 weeks gestation**, there is still enough **amniotic fluid** and fetal size is not too large, which allows for successful manipulation. - This timing is particularly optimal for **multiparous women** according to **RCOG guidelines** (36-37 weeks). - This timing also minimizes the risk of **spontaneous reversion** back to a breech presentation before labor begins. - Balances adequate fetal maturity with sufficient uterine space for successful version. *34 weeks* - Performing an external cephalic version (ECV) at 34 weeks has a lower success rate and a higher chance of **spontaneous reversion** due to the smaller fetal size and relatively more amniotic fluid. - The chance of **spontaneous cephalic version** (natural turning) is still significant at this stage, making an earlier intervention potentially unnecessary. - Too early for routine ECV as many breech presentations spontaneously convert to cephalic before 36 weeks. *38 weeks* - By 38 weeks, the fetus is larger and there is proportionally less **amniotic fluid**, which makes successful external version more difficult and painful for the mother. - While **ACOG recommends 37-38 weeks**, the success rate decreases with advancing gestation due to reduced uterine space. - The risk of **uterine contractions** and iatrogenic induction of labor is higher at this gestation. *40 weeks* - At 40 weeks, the fetus is at term and much larger, occupying most of the uterine cavity, significantly reducing the chances of a successful external version. - The risk of complications such as **placental abruption**, **cord compression**, and premature labor is increased. - Success rates are markedly lower, making routine ECV at this stage generally not recommended.

Q: What is the presenting part in a transverse lie?

Shoulder. ***Shoulder*** - In a **transverse lie**, the fetal **shoulder** is the part that presents over the pelvic inlet. - This occurs when the fetal long axis is 90 degrees to the maternal spine. *Face* - A **face presentation** is a type of **cephalic presentation** where the head is hyperextended, and the face is the presenting part. - This is not characteristic of a transverse lie. *Vertex* - A **vertex presentation** is the most common and ideal **cephalic presentation**, where the head is flexed and the top of the head (vertex) is the presenting part. - This indicates a longitudinal lie, not a transverse lie. *Brow* - A **brow presentation** is also a type of **cephalic presentation** where the fetal head is partially extended, and the brow is the presenting part. - Like vertex and face presentations, this occurs with a longitudinal fetal lie.

Q: What is the most common site for ectopic pregnancies?

Ampulla. ***Ampulla*** - The **ampulla** of the fallopian tube is the most common site for ectopic pregnancies, accounting for about **70-80% of all cases**. - Its **wider lumen** and **tortuous path** can delay the ovum's transit, increasing the likelihood of implantation there. *Isthmus* - The **isthmus** is the second most common site for ectopic pregnancies, accounting for about **12% of cases**. - Pregnancies in this narrow, muscular part of the tube are more prone to **early rupture** due to limited distensibility. *Fimbriae* - **Fimbrial** ectopic pregnancies are rare, accounting for approximately **5% of cases**. - These occur when the fertilized egg implants on the **finger-like projections** at the end of the fallopian tube. *Interstitial/Cornual* - **Interstitial** or **cornual** pregnancies are uncommon but serious, making up about **2-4% of ectopic pregnancies**. - They occur in the portion of the fallopian tube that passes through the **muscular wall of the uterus** and carry a higher risk of hemorrhage due to rich vascularity.

Q: At which stage of cervical cancer is hydronephrosis typically observed?

Stage 3B. ***Stage 3B*** - **Hydronephrosis** in cervical cancer is typically a sign of advanced disease where the tumor has spread to the **pelvic side wall**, compressing the **ureters**. - According to the **FIGO staging system**, involvement of the **pelvic side wall** and/or causing **hydronephrosis** indicates **Stage IIIB** disease. *Stage 2A* - This stage involves invasion beyond the uterus but **without involvement of the lower third of the vagina or parametrium**. - **Hydronephrosis** would not be expected at this earlier stage as it typically signifies more extensive tumor bulk or spread. *Stage 2B* - This stage indicates involvement of the **parametrium** but **without extension to the pelvic side wall**. - While the tumor is more advanced than Stage 2A, it is not yet associated with the direct **ureteral compression** that leads to **hydronephrosis**. *Stage 3A* - This stage involves the **lower third of the vagina** but **not the pelvic side wall**. - Although the tumor has spread to the vagina, the specific characteristic of **hydronephrosis** due to **ureteral obstruction** by the tumor reaching the pelvic side wall differentiating Stage 3A from Stage 3B is not present.

Q: What is the stage of endometrial carcinoma when it involves the cervix?

Stage 2: Cancer has spread to the cervix.. ***Stage 2: Cancer has spread to the cervix*** - According to the **FIGO 2009 staging system** for endometrial carcinoma (applicable at the time of this exam), involvement of the cervix with **stromal invasion** without extending beyond the uterus into the parametrium is classified as **Stage II**. - This stage indicates that the cancer remains within the confines of the uterus but has spread from the uterine corpus to the **cervical stroma**. - **Note:** FIGO staging was updated in 2023, but this question reflects the 2009 criteria used at the time. *Stage 1: Cancer confined to the uterus* - This stage indicates that the cancer is **limited to the uterine corpus (body of the uterus)**, with no spread to the cervix or beyond. - Stage 1 is further subdivided based on the **depth of myometrial invasion**, but the cervix is not involved at this stage. *Stage 3: Cancer has spread beyond the uterus but not beyond the pelvis* - Stage 3 involves spread **beyond the uterus but is still confined to the pelvis**, including parametrial involvement, vaginal or serosal invasion, or pelvic/paraaortic lymph node involvement. - This stage represents more extensive local or regional spread than simply cervical involvement. *Stage 4: Cancer has spread to distant sites* - This is the most advanced stage, indicating that the cancer has spread to **distant organs** (e.g., lungs, bone) or involves the **bladder or bowel mucosa**. - Stage 4 represents a systemic disease rather than localized pelvic spread.

Q: Which of the following pelvic measurements is most commonly used in clinical practice?

Diagonal conjugate. ***Diagonal conjugate*** - This measurement is the most commonly used in clinical practice due to its **accessibility** and ability to estimate the **obstetrical conjugate**, which indicates the true AP diameter of the pelvic inlet. - It is measured vaginally from the **lower border of the symphysis pubis** to the **sacral promontory**. *Anteroposterior diameter of inlet* - This measurement, also known as the **obstetrical conjugate**, truly represents the narrowest AP diameter for fetal passage through the inlet. - However, it cannot be measured directly clinically and must be estimated from the diagonal conjugate or imaging. *Transverse diameter of outlet* - This measurement is important for assessing the **midpelvis** and **pelvic outlet**, but it is less commonly the primary measurement used for initial pelvic assessment compared to the diagonal conjugate. - A compromised transverse diameter can indicate a generally contracted pelvis or **android/anthropoid pelvic shapes**, which may lead to obstructed labor. *Oblique diameter of pelvis* - The oblique diameter provides information about the **symmetry of the pelvis**, but it is not routinely measured clinically unless there is suspicion of pelvic asymmetry or disease. - Significant asymmetry, often due to injury or disease (e.g., **scoliosis**, polio), can complicate labor by misdirecting the fetal head.

Question 1

Preferred treatment for menorrhagia in reproductive age group?

Accepted Answer

OCPs

Answer

Cu IUD

Answer

Hysterectomy

Answer

NOVA T

Question 2

Which condition is associated with exclusively fetal blood loss?

Accepted Answer

Vasa previa

Answer

Placenta praevia

Answer

Polyhydramnios

Answer

Oligohydramnios

Question 3

In which gestational weeks is Hegar's sign typically observed?

Accepted Answer

6 to 10 weeks

Answer

10-14 weeks

Answer

14-18 weeks

Answer

18-22 weeks

Question 4

What is the most reliable test to confirm ovulation after it has occurred?

Accepted Answer

Serum progesterone

Answer

Serum estrogen

Answer

Both serum estrogen and progesterone

Answer

None of the options

Question 5

The optimal timing for external cephalic version (ECV) is

Accepted Answer

36 weeks

Answer

34 weeks

Answer

38 weeks

Answer

40 weeks

Question 6

What is the presenting part in a transverse lie?

Accepted Answer

Shoulder

Answer

Face

Answer

Vertex

Answer

Brow

Question 7

What is the most common site for ectopic pregnancies?

Accepted Answer

Ampulla

Answer

Isthmus

Answer

Fimbriae

Answer

Interstitial/Cornual

Question 8

At which stage of cervical cancer is hydronephrosis typically observed?

Accepted Answer

Stage 3B

Answer

Stage 2A

Answer

Stage 2B

Answer

Stage 3A

Question 9

What is the stage of endometrial carcinoma when it involves the cervix?

Accepted Answer

Stage 2: Cancer has spread to the cervix.

Answer

Stage 1: Cancer confined to the uterus.

Answer

Stage 3: Cancer has spread beyond the uterus but not beyond the pelvis.

Answer

Stage 4: Cancer has spread to distant sites.

Question 10

Which of the following pelvic measurements is most commonly used in clinical practice?

Accepted Answer

Diagonal conjugate

Answer

Transverse diameter of outlet

Answer

Oblique diameter of pelvis

Answer

Anteroposterior diameter of inlet

NEET-PG 2012 — Obstetrics and Gynecology