Cardiology Practice Questions

Q: In a preterm baby with patent ductus arteriosus, which of the following statements is true, EXCEPT?

Narrow pulse pressure. In a Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA), blood shunts from the high-pressure aorta to the low-pressure pulmonary artery during both systole and diastole. **Explanation of the Correct Answer:** * **Option A (Narrow pulse pressure):** This is the **incorrect** statement (and thus the correct answer). In PDA, the runoff of blood from the aorta into the pulmonary artery during diastole causes a significant drop in diastolic blood pressure. Conversely, the stroke volume increases to compensate for the left-to-right shunt, maintaining or slightly increasing systolic pressure. This results in a **Wide Pulse Pressure**, not a narrow one. Clinically, this manifests as "bounding pulses" (Water-hammer pulse). **Explanation of Incorrect Options:** * **Option B (Necrotizing enterocolitis):** Large PDAs cause a "ductal steal" phenomenon, diverting blood away from the systemic circulation. Reduced mesenteric perfusion increases the risk of **NEC** in preterm infants. * **Option C (Continuous murmur):** The classic physical finding is a **Gibson’s murmur** (continuous machinery murmur), heard best at the left infraclavicular area. Note: In very small preterms, it may only be systolic initially. * **Option D (Congestive heart failure):** The increased pulmonary venous return leads to volume overload of the left atrium and left ventricle, potentially resulting in **CHF**. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Drug of Choice:** Intravenous **Indomethacin** or **Ibuprofen** (NSAIDs) are used to close a PDA by inhibiting prostaglandins. Paracetamol is an emerging alternative. * **Maintenance:** If a duct-dependent lesion is present (e.g., Transposition of Great Arteries), **Alprostadil (PGE1)** is given to keep the ductus open. * **Chest X-ray:** Shows cardiomegaly and increased pulmonary vascular markings.

Q: What is the average blood pressure of a 1-year-old child?

95/50 mmHg. **Explanation:** The blood pressure (BP) in children is significantly lower than in adults and increases progressively with age, height, and weight. For a **1-year-old child**, the average (50th percentile) blood pressure is approximately **95/50 mmHg**. **Why Option C is correct:** Blood pressure is determined by cardiac output and systemic vascular resistance. In infants and toddlers, the arterial walls are more compliant and the stroke volume is smaller compared to adults. According to standard pediatric reference charts (like the Nelson Textbook of Pediatrics), the systolic BP at birth is ~60–70 mmHg, rising to ~95 mmHg by age 1, and reaching adult levels by late adolescence. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Option A (120/80 mmHg):** This is the standard normal BP for a healthy **adult**. In a 1-year-old, this would represent severe Stage 2 hypertension. * **Option B (75/50 mmHg):** This range is more characteristic of a **neonate** (newborn) or an infant under 3 months of age. * **Option D (60/30 mmHg):** This is typical for a **preterm neonate**. In a 1-year-old, this value would indicate profound hypotension or shock. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Formula for Systolic BP (1–10 years):** A quick bedside rule for the 50th percentile systolic BP is **90 + (2 × age in years)**. For a 1-year-old: 90 + 2 = 92 mmHg (closest to 95). * **Hypotension Definition:** In a child aged 1–10 years, systolic BP **< 70 + (2 × age in years)** is considered hypotension. * **Cuff Size:** The most common cause of an erroneous BP reading is incorrect cuff size. The bladder should cover **80–100%** of the arm circumference and **40%** of the arm width. * **Right Arm Preference:** BP should ideally be measured in the right arm to avoid false readings in cases of Coarctation of the Aorta.

Q: All of the following are included in Jones major criteria except?

Lymphadenopathy. The **Jones Criteria** are used for the clinical diagnosis of **Acute Rheumatic Fever (ARF)**, a non-suppurative sequela of Group A Streptococcal (GAS) pharyngitis. ### **Explanation of the Correct Answer** **A. Lymphadenopathy:** This is the correct answer because it is **not** part of the Jones Criteria. While lymphadenopathy may occur during the initial streptococcal throat infection, it is not a diagnostic feature of the subsequent autoimmune inflammatory process that defines Rheumatic Fever. ### **Analysis of Incorrect Options (Major Criteria)** The mnemonic **"J♥NES"** helps recall the Major Criteria: * **B. Polyarthritis (J - Joints):** Migratory polyarthritis involving large joints is the most common major manifestation. * **D. Pancarditis (♥ - Carditis):** Inflammation affecting the endocardium, myocardium, and pericardium. It is the only manifestation that can lead to chronic valvular heart disease. * **C. Sydenham's chorea (N - Nodes/Neurological):** Characterized by rapid, purposeless movements; it is a late manifestation. * **Erythema Marginatum (E):** A pink, evanescent, non-pruritic macular rash with serpiginous borders. * **Subcutaneous Nodules (S):** Small, painless, firm lumps typically found over bony prominences. ### **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG** 1. **Diagnosis Requirement:** For a primary episode, diagnosis requires **2 Major** OR **1 Major + 2 Minor** criteria, plus evidence of a preceding GAS infection (e.g., elevated ASO titer). 2. **Minor Criteria:** Include fever, arthralgia, prolonged PR interval on ECG, and elevated acute phase reactants (ESR/CRP). 3. **Most Common Valve Involved:** Mitral valve (Mitral Regurgitation in acute phase; Mitral Stenosis in chronic phase). 4. **Aschoff Bodies:** Pathognomonic histological finding in the myocardium consisting of Anitschkow cells ("caterpillar cells").

Q: All of the following may occur in Noonan's syndrome except?

Infertility in females. **Explanation:** Noonan’s syndrome is an **autosomal dominant** multisystem disorder often referred to as the "Male Turner Syndrome" due to phenotypic similarities. It is primarily caused by mutations in the **RAS-MAPK signaling pathway** (most commonly the **PTPN11 gene**). **Why "Infertility in females" is the correct answer:** Unlike Turner Syndrome (45,XO), where streak ovaries lead to primary infertility, females with Noonan’s syndrome (usually 46,XX) typically have **normal ovarian function and are fertile**. In contrast, **males** with Noonan’s syndrome often suffer from infertility due to gonadal dysfunction associated with bilateral cryptorchidism. **Analysis of incorrect options:** * **Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy (HCM):** This is a classic association. While Pulmonary Stenosis (dysplastic valve) is the most common cardiac lesion, HCM occurs in approximately 20-30% of cases. * **Cryptorchidism:** Undescended testes are seen in up to 80% of affected males, frequently leading to impaired spermatogenesis. * **Autosomal dominant transmission:** Noonan’s syndrome follows an AD pattern, though many cases arise from *de novo* mutations. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Karyotype:** Usually normal (46,XY or 46,XX). * **Cardiac Profile:** Pulmonary Valve Stenosis (most common) > HCM > ASD. * **Facial Features:** Low-set ears, hypertelorism, downward-slanting palpebral fissures, and webbed neck. * **Hematology:** Increased risk of bleeding diathesis (Factor XI deficiency) and Juvenile Myelomonocytic Leukemia (JMML). * **Triad for Diagnosis:** Short stature, characteristic facies, and congenital heart disease.

Q: What is the most common cause of heart block in infants?

Surgery for congenital heart disease. **Explanation:** The most common cause of heart block in infants and children is **iatrogenic injury during surgery for congenital heart disease (CHD)**. During corrective procedures for defects like Ventricular Septal Defects (VSD), Atrioventricular Canal Defects, or Tetralogy of Fallot, the conduction system (specifically the Bundle of His) is anatomically close to the surgical site. Sutures or mechanical trauma during the repair can lead to transient or permanent complete heart block. **Analysis of Options:** * **A. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE):** This is the most common cause of **congenital** (in-utero) complete heart block due to the transplacental passage of maternal anti-Ro (SSA) and anti-La (SSB) antibodies. However, in the overall pediatric population, post-surgical causes are statistically more frequent. * **C. Viral Myocarditis:** While myocarditis can cause arrhythmias and conduction delays due to myocardial inflammation, it is a less common cause of permanent heart block compared to surgical trauma. * **D. Rheumatic Fever:** This typically presents in older children (school-age) rather than infants. While it characteristically causes a **first-degree heart block** (prolonged PR interval), it rarely progresses to complete heart block in the acute phase. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Congenital Heart Block:** Strongly associated with maternal **SLE**; 100% of these infants have mothers with anti-Ro/SSA antibodies. * **Post-Surgical Block:** If a heart block persists for more than **7–10 days** after cardiac surgery, a permanent pacemaker is usually indicated. * **Most common site of injury:** The Bundle of His, especially during VSD closure.

Q: Which of the following conditions is worsened by prostaglandin E infusion?

Obstructive TAPVC. **Explanation:** The primary goal of **Prostaglandin E1 (PGE1)** infusion is to maintain the patency of the **Ductus Arteriosus (DA)**. This is life-saving in ductal-dependent congenital heart diseases but contraindicated in specific conditions. **Why Obstructive TAPVC is the correct answer:** In Total Anomalous Pulmonary Venous Connection (TAPVC), all pulmonary veins drain into the systemic venous circulation (right atrium) instead of the left atrium. In the **obstructive** form (commonly infradiaphragmatic), there is severe resistance to pulmonary venous return. This leads to massive pulmonary congestion and edema. Administering PGE1 opens the ductus arteriosus, which increases pulmonary blood flow. In the presence of an obstruction to venous outflow, this extra blood "backs up" into the lungs, **worsening pulmonary edema** and clinical hypoxia. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **A. Pulmonary Atresia without VSD:** This is a **ductal-dependent pulmonary circulation** lesion. PGE1 is mandatory to allow blood to flow from the aorta through the ductus to the lungs for oxygenation. * **B. Hypoplastic Left Heart Syndrome (HLHS):** This is a **ductal-dependent systemic circulation** lesion. PGE1 is essential to allow the right ventricle to pump blood to the systemic circulation via the ductus. * **D. Aortic Arch Interruption:** Similar to HLHS, the lower body depends on the ductus for perfusion. PGE1 is life-saving to prevent cardiogenic shock and renal failure. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **PGE1 Indications:** Cyanotic lesions with decreased pulmonary flow (e.g., TOF, Tricuspid Atresia) and Acyanotic lesions with decreased systemic flow (e.g., Coarctation of Aorta, HLHS). * **PGE1 Side Effects:** The most common side effect is **Apnea** (requires readiness for intubation), followed by fever and flushing. * **TAPVC X-ray Sign:** "Snowman" or "Figure of 8" appearance (seen in Supracardiac TAPVC).

Q: A 2-month-old child, born prematurely, presents with respiratory distress. Cardiac examination reveals increased pulse pressure and a pansystolic murmur best heard in the 2nd left intercostal space. What is the most probable diagnosis?

Patent ductus arteriosus. ### Explanation **Correct Answer: C. Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)** The clinical presentation of a **premature infant** with respiratory distress, **increased pulse pressure** (bounding pulses), and a murmur in the **2nd left intercostal space** is classic for PDA. * **Pathophysiology:** In PDA, the fetal connection between the pulmonary artery and aorta fails to close. This leads to a left-to-right shunt. The increased stroke volume into the aorta followed by rapid runoff into the pulmonary circulation causes a wide pulse pressure. * **Murmur Characteristics:** While the classic description is a "continuous machinery murmur," in neonates and young infants with high pulmonary vascular resistance, it may present initially as a **systolic murmur** (often pansystolic) at the left upper sternal border. **Why the other options are incorrect:** * **A. Atrial Septal Defect (ASD):** Typically asymptomatic in infancy. It presents with a fixed wide splitting of S2 and a systolic ejection murmur at the left upper sternal border, not a pansystolic murmur or wide pulse pressure. * **B. Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD):** While it presents with a pansystolic murmur, it is best heard at the **lower left sternal border**. It does not typically cause increased pulse pressure. * **D. Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF):** A cyanotic heart disease. The murmur is due to pulmonary stenosis (ejection systolic), and pulse pressure is usually normal or narrow. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Drug of Choice:** Indomethacin or Ibuprofen (NSAIDs) are used to close a PDA in prematures by inhibiting prostaglandins. * **Prostaglandin E1:** Used to keep the ductus *open* in ductal-dependent cyanotic heart diseases. * **Association:** PDA is strongly associated with **Congenital Rubella Syndrome**. * **Physical Sign:** "Bounding pulses" or "Water-hammer pulses" in a neonate should immediately make you suspect PDA.

Q: All of the following are cyanotic heart diseases, EXCEPT?

Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA). **Explanation:** Congenital Heart Diseases (CHD) are broadly classified into **Acyanotic** (Left-to-Right shunt) and **Cyanotic** (Right-to-Left shunt) based on whether deoxygenated blood enters the systemic circulation. **Why PDA is the correct answer:** **Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA)** is a classic **Acyanotic CHD**. In a PDA, the high-pressure aorta shunts oxygenated blood back into the lower-pressure pulmonary artery (Left-to-Right shunt). Since oxygenated blood is recirculated to the lungs rather than deoxygenated blood entering the systemic flow, the patient remains "pink" (non-cyanotic) unless complications like Eisenmenger syndrome develop later. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF):** The most common cyanotic CHD after infancy. It involves pulmonary stenosis and a VSD, leading to a Right-to-Left shunt and systemic cyanosis. * **Tricuspid Atresia:** A cyanotic CHD where the absence of the tricuspid valve necessitates an ASD and VSD/PDA for survival. Deoxygenated systemic blood must mix with pulmonary venous blood to reach the left side, causing cyanosis. * **Eisenmenger’s Complex:** This occurs when a long-standing acyanotic shunt (like VSD) causes pulmonary hypertension, leading to a **reversal of shunt** (Right-to-Left). Once the shunt reverses, the patient becomes clinically cyanotic. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **The 5 T’s of Cyanotic CHD:** **T**OF, **T**ransposition of Great Arteries (TGA), **T**ricuspid Atresia, **T**runcus Arteriosus, and **T**otal Anomalous Pulmonary Venous Connection (TAPVC). * **PDA Murmur:** Characteristically described as a **"Machinery murmur"** (continuous) heard best at the left infraclavicular area. * **Drug of Choice:** **Indomethacin** or **Ibuprofen** (NSAIDs) are used to close a PDA in prematures; **Alprostadil (PGE1)** is used to keep it open in ductal-dependent cyanotic lesions.

Q: Which of the following conditions is typically not seen in adults?

Kawasaki disease. **Explanation:** The correct answer is **Kawasaki Disease (KD)**. **Why Kawasaki Disease is the correct answer:** Kawasaki Disease is an acute, febrile, medium-vessel vasculitis that is almost exclusively a disease of **young children**. Approximately 85% to 90% of cases occur in children under the age of 5, with a peak incidence between 6 months and 2 years. While rare "adult-onset Kawasaki disease" cases are documented in literature, it is classically defined in pediatric medicine as a childhood condition. In the context of competitive exams like NEET-PG, it is the hallmark "pediatric" vasculitis. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Henoch-Schönlein Purpura (HSP):** Although it is the most common vasculitis in children, it frequently occurs in adults (often presenting with a more severe clinical course and higher risk of renal complications). * **Susac Syndrome:** This is a rare endotheliopathy characterized by the triad of encephalopathy, branch retinal artery occlusions, and sensorineural hearing loss. It typically affects young adults (ages 20–40), predominantly females. * **Takayasu Arteritis:** Known as "pulseless disease," this large-vessel vasculitis primarily affects the aorta and its branches. It is most commonly seen in young women under the age of 40. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **KD Diagnosis:** Requires Fever for ≥5 days + 4 out of 5 criteria (Conjunctivitis, Rash, Edema/Erythema of hands/feet, Adenopathy, Mucositis/Strawberry tongue). * **Complication:** Coronary artery aneurysms are the most dreaded complication; 2D-Echo is the investigation of choice. * **Treatment:** IVIG (2g/kg) + High-dose Aspirin. Note: This is one of the few instances where Aspirin is used in children despite the risk of Reye’s syndrome.

Question 1

In a preterm baby with patent ductus arteriosus, which of the following statements is true, EXCEPT?

Accepted Answer

Narrow pulse pressure

Answer

Necrotizing enterocolitis

Answer

Continuous murmur

Answer

Congestive heart failure

Question 2

What is the average blood pressure of a 1-year-old child?

Accepted Answer

95/50 mmHg

Answer

120/80 mmHg

Answer

75/50 mmHg

Answer

60/30 mmHg

Question 3

All of the following are included in Jones major criteria except?

Accepted Answer

Lymphadenopathy

Answer

Polyarthritis

Answer

Sydenham's chorea

Answer

Pancarditis

Question 4

All of the following may occur in Noonan's syndrome except?

Accepted Answer

Infertility in females

Answer

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

Answer

Cryptorchidism

Answer

Autosomal dominant transmission

Question 5

What is the most common cause of heart block in infants?

Accepted Answer

Surgery for congenital heart disease

Answer

Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

Answer

Viral myocarditis

Answer

Rheumatic fever

Question 6

Pulmonary blood flow is decreased in which of the following conditions?

Accepted Answer

Tetralogy of Fallot

Answer

Ebstein's anomaly

Answer

Common atrium

Answer

Transposition of the great arteries with intact ventricular septum

Question 7

Which of the following conditions is worsened by prostaglandin E infusion?

Accepted Answer

Obstructive TAPVC

Answer

Pulmonary atresia without VSD

Answer

Hypoplastic left heart syndrome

Answer

Aortic arch interruption

Question 8

A 2-month-old child, born prematurely, presents with respiratory distress. Cardiac examination reveals increased pulse pressure and a pansystolic murmur best heard in the 2nd left intercostal space. What is the most probable diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Patent ductus arteriosus

Answer

Atrial septal defect

Answer

Ventricular septal defect

Answer

Tetralogy of Fallot

Question 9

All of the following are cyanotic heart diseases, EXCEPT?

Accepted Answer

Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA)

Answer

Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)

Answer

Tricuspid Atresia

Answer

Eisenmenger's complex

Question 10

Which of the following conditions is typically not seen in adults?

Accepted Answer

Kawasaki disease

Answer

Henoch-Schönlein purpura

Answer

Susac syndrome

Answer

Takayasu arteritis

Cardiology — MCQs

Cardiology — MCQs

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