Hematopathology Practice Questions

Q: Which of the following blood group systems is characterized by carbohydrate antigens?

Lewis. **Explanation:** Blood group antigens are biochemically classified into two main categories: **Carbohydrates** (sugars) and **Proteins** [3]. **Why Lewis is Correct:** The **Lewis (Le) system** consists of carbohydrate antigens. Unlike most other systems, Lewis antigens are not synthesized by the red cell membrane itself. Instead, they are carbohydrate chains produced in secretions (by epithelial cells) and subsequently adsorbed from the plasma onto the red blood cell surface. Other major carbohydrate-based systems include **ABO, H, and P.** [1], [3] **Why the others are Incorrect:** * **Rh System (Option A):** These are complex **transmembrane proteins** [3]. They are highly immunogenic (especially the D antigen) and do not have a carbohydrate component. * **Kell System (Option B):** These are **single-pass transmembrane glycoproteins**. The Kell protein is large and highly folded via disulfide bonds. * **Duffy System (Option C):** These are **multipass transmembrane proteins** that act as receptors for chemokines and are the binding site for *Plasmodium vivax*. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** 1. **Biochemical Nature:** * **Carbohydrate Antigens:** ABO, Lewis, P, H, I [1], [2]. * **Protein Antigens:** Rh, Kell, Duffy, Kidd, MNS [3]. 2. **Lewis & Pregnancy:** Lewis antigen expression often decreases during pregnancy (transient Le(a-b-) phenotype), which can lead to the development of transient Lewis antibodies. 3. **Duffy & Malaria:** Individuals who are Duffy-negative [Fy(a-b-)] are resistant to **Plasmodium vivax** malaria, a common finding in African populations. 4. **Kell & HDN:** Anti-Kell is a common cause of severe Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn (HDN) because it suppresses fetal erythropoiesis in addition to causing hemolysis.

Q: Disseminated intravascular coagulation can occur in all of the following conditions except:

Hemophilia. **Explanation:** **Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)** is a thrombohemorrhagic disorder characterized by the systemic activation of the coagulation cascade, leading to widespread fibrin deposition and the subsequent consumption of clotting factors and platelets [1]. **Why Hemophilia is the correct answer:** Hemophilia (A or B) is a **hereditary deficiency** of specific clotting factors (Factor VIII or IX). It is a "hypocoagulable" state characterized by a failure to form a stable fibrin clot. DIC, conversely, requires a trigger that initiates **excessive thrombin generation**. Because hemophiliacs lack the necessary factors to complete the coagulation cascade efficiently, they do not develop the systemic, runaway intravascular clotting seen in DIC. **Why the other options are incorrect:** * **Snakebite:** Certain venoms (e.g., Russell’s viper) contain procoagulant enzymes that directly activate Factor X or Prothrombin, triggering rapid DIC. * **Placenta Previa:** Obstetric complications are classic triggers for DIC [1]. The release of **Tissue Factor (Thromboplastin)** from the placenta or decidua into the maternal circulation initiates the extrinsic pathway. * **Falciparum Malaria:** Severe malaria causes DIC through infected erythrocyte adhesion to endothelium, leading to microvascular stasis, endothelial damage, and the release of procoagulant cytokines (TNF-α) [1]. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** 1. **Most common cause of DIC:** Sepsis (Gram-negative organisms due to endotoxins) [1]. 2. **Best screening test:** Increased **D-dimer** (indicates fibrinolysis) and prolonged PT/aPTT [1]. 3. **Peripheral Smear:** Look for **Schistocytes** (fragmented RBCs) due to microangiopathic hemolytic anemia (MAHA). 4. **Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia (M3):** A high-yield hematological malignancy strongly associated with DIC due to the release of procoagulant granules.

Q: A low mean corpuscular volume with a normal red cell distribution width suggests which of the following?

Alpha thalassaemia trait. ### Explanation The key to solving this question lies in understanding the **Red Cell Distribution Width (RDW)**, which measures the variation in red blood cell size (anisocytosis). **1. Why Alpha Thalassaemia Trait is Correct:** In Thalassaemia traits (both Alpha and Beta), there is a genetic defect in globin chain synthesis [1]. This results in the production of red blood cells that are **uniformly small (microcytic)**. Because the cells are consistently small across the entire population, the **MCV is low**, but the **RDW remains normal**. This "homogenous microcytosis" is a classic hallmark used to differentiate Thalassaemia from Iron Deficiency Anemia (IDA). **2. Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Iron Deficiency Anaemia (IDA):** This is the most common cause of microcytic anemia [3]. However, as iron stores deplete, the marrow produces cells of varying sizes, leading to a **high RDW**. IDA is characterized by "heterogenous microcytosis." * **Anaemia of Chronic Disease (ACD):** While ACD can be microcytic, it is more commonly **normocytic with a normal RDW** [2]. If it becomes microcytic, the RDW may stay normal, but Thalassaemia trait is a more classic representation of the "Low MCV + Normal RDW" pattern in exam scenarios. * **Sideroblastic Anaemia:** This condition typically features a dimorphic cell population (small pale cells and normal cells), which significantly **increases the RDW**. **3. Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Mentzer Index:** Used to differentiate IDA from Thalassaemia. * **MCV/RBC count 13** suggests IDA. * **RDW** is the first parameter to change (increase) in early nutritional anemias (Iron, B12, or Folate deficiency) even before the MCV becomes abnormal. * **High-Yield Rule:** Microcytosis + Normal RDW = Thalassaemia trait or ACD. Microcytosis + High RDW = Iron Deficiency Anemia.

Q: Non-specific esterase is present in which of the following conditions?

Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML). **Explanation:** The correct answer is **Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML)**, specifically the monocytic subtypes (AML-M4 and M5) [1]. **1. Why the Correct Answer is Right:** Non-specific esterase (NSE), such as alpha-naphthyl acetate esterase, is a cytochemical stain used to identify cells of **monocytic lineage** [1]. In the FAB classification of AML, **AML-M4 (Acute Myelomonocytic Leukemia)** and **AML-M5 (Acute Monocytic Leukemia)** show strong positivity for NSE [1]. The enzyme helps differentiate these monocytic blasts from myeloblasts (which are typically NSE negative but Myeloperoxidase positive). A key diagnostic feature is that NSE activity in monocytes is **inhibited by Sodium Fluoride (NaF)**. **2. Why Incorrect Options are Wrong:** * **Megakaryocytic leukemia (AML-M7):** These cells are typically negative for NSE but may show positivity for Acid Phosphatase or specific markers like Platelet Peroxidase (PPO) and CD41/CD61. * **Lymphocytic leukemia (ALL):** Lymphoblasts are characteristically NSE negative. They are typically identified by Periodic Acid-Schiff (PAS) positivity in a "block-like" pattern and TdT expression. * **Erythroleukemia (AML-M6):** Erythroblasts are generally NSE negative but show strong, globular PAS positivity. **3. High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **MPO (Myeloperoxidase):** Most sensitive stain for myeloid differentiation (Positive in M1, M2, M3, M4). * **Sudan Black B (SBB):** Stains phospholipids; mimics MPO but can be used on older smears. * **NSE (Non-specific Esterase):** Marker for **Monocytes** (M4, M5) [1]. * **Specific Esterase (Chloroacetate Esterase):** Marker for **Granulocytes** (Neutrophils). * **PAS (Periodic Acid-Schiff):** Positive in ALL (block-like) and AML-M6 (diffuse/globular). **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Diseases of White Blood Cells, Lymph Nodes, Spleen, and Thymus, pp. 620-622.

Q: Acanthocytes are seen in which of the following conditions?

Abetalipoproteinemia. **Explanation:** **Acanthocytes** (also known as spur cells) are red blood cells with irregularly spaced, thorny, or spiked cytoplasmic projections of varying lengths [2]. **1. Why Abetalipoproteinemia is correct:** Abetalipoproteinemia is an autosomal recessive disorder caused by a mutation in the **MTTP gene**, leading to a deficiency in Apolipoprotein B-48 and B-100. This results in an inability to synthesize chylomicrons and VLDLs. The lack of these lipoproteins leads to an abnormal lipid composition in the RBC membrane (specifically an accumulation of sphingomyelin), which decreases membrane fluidity and causes the characteristic "spiked" acanthocyte morphology. **2. Why other options are incorrect:** * **Hampy’s disease:** This is not a standard medical term associated with hematological or histological pathology. It may be a distractor for Hartnup disease (a disorder of amino acid transport) or simply a "filler" option. * **Whipple disease:** Caused by the bacterium *Tropheryma whipplei*, this is a systemic infectious disease primarily affecting the small intestine. Histologically, it is characterized by **PAS-positive macrophages** in the lamina propria, not acanthocytes. **3. High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Acanthocytes** are also seen in: Severe liver disease (Spur cell anemia), McLeod syndrome, and Post-splenectomy states [2]. * **Abetalipoproteinemia Triad:** Acanthocytosis, Steatorrhea (malabsorption of fat-soluble vitamins A, D, E, K), and Retinitis pigmentosa/Ataxia [1]. * **Differentiate from Echinocytes (Burr cells):** These have *regularly* spaced, shorter projections and are seen in Uremia, Pyruvate kinase deficiency, and Gastric cancer.

Q: Cryoprecipitate is rich in which of the following factors?

Factor VIII. **Explanation:** Cryoprecipitate is the cold-insoluble fraction of plasma obtained by thawing fresh frozen plasma (FFP) at 1–6°C. It is a concentrated source of specific coagulation proteins. **Why Factor VIII is correct:** Cryoprecipitate is specifically enriched with five key components: **Factor VIII** (anti-hemophilic factor), **Von Willebrand Factor (vWF)**, **Fibrinogen** (Factor I), **Factor XIII**, and **Fibronectin**. It contains approximately 80–120 units of Factor VIII per bag, making it a traditional treatment for Hemophilia A and Von Willebrand disease (though recombinant factors are now preferred). **Why other options are incorrect:** * **Factor II (Prothrombin), Factor VII, and Factor IX:** These are Vitamin K-dependent factors. They remain in the supernatant (cryo-poor plasma) during the thawing process and are not concentrated in the cryoprecipitate. These factors are best replaced using **Prothrombin Complex Concentrate (PCC)** or **FFP**. * **Factor V:** This is a labile factor found in FFP but is not significantly concentrated in cryoprecipitate. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Primary Indication:** Currently, the most common clinical use of cryoprecipitate is **hypofibrinogenemia** (e.g., in DIC or massive hemorrhage) because it provides a high concentration of Fibrinogen in a small volume. * **Storage:** It is stored at **-18°C or colder** and has a shelf life of 1 year. Once thawed, it must be transfused within 6 hours (or 4 hours if pooled). * **Dosage:** One unit of cryoprecipitate typically raises the fibrinogen level by 5–10 mg/dL in an average adult. * **Mnemonic:** Remember **"8-1-13-vWF"** (Factors 8, 1, 13, and vWF).

Question 1

Which of the following blood group systems is characterized by carbohydrate antigens?

Accepted Answer

Lewis

Answer

Rh

Answer

Kell

Answer

Duffy

Question 2

Disseminated intravascular coagulation can occur in all of the following conditions except:

Accepted Answer

Hemophilia

Answer

Snakebite

Answer

Placenta previa

Answer

Falciparum malaria

Question 3

A low mean corpuscular volume with a normal red cell distribution width suggests which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Alpha thalassaemia trait

Answer

Iron deficiency anaemia

Answer

Anaemia of chronic disease

Answer

Sideroblastic anaemia

Question 4

A 35-year-old chronic smoker (10 years) presents to the emergency room 3 hours after an accident with signs of blood loss. The patient was transfused with a fixed component ratio of the same blood group. Four hours post-transfusion, the patient developed breathlessness and cough. A chest X-ray was advised. What is the most common blood component transfusion that leads to this condition?

Accepted Answer

Plasma transfusion

Answer

Packed Red Blood Cells (PRBC) transfusion

Answer

Platelet transfusion

Answer

Whole blood transfusion

Question 5

Non-specific esterase is present in which of the following conditions?

Accepted Answer

Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML)

Answer

Megakaryocytic leukemia

Answer

Lymphocytic leukemia

Answer

Erythroleukemia

Question 6

Acanthocytes are seen in which of the following conditions?

Accepted Answer

Abetalipoproteinemia

Answer

Hampy's disease

Answer

Whipple disease

Answer

None of the above

Question 7

A 55-year-old man newly diagnosed with leukemia undergoes genetic studies that reveal a t(9;22) translocation (the Philadelphia chromosome). Which of the following would a complete blood count most likely show?

Accepted Answer

Increased neutrophil count

Answer

Increased lymphocyte count

Answer

Numerous lymphoblasts

Answer

Numerous myeloblasts

Question 8

Cold haemagglutinin is associated with which type of antibody?

Accepted Answer

Donath-Landsteiner antibody

Answer

Anti-IgM

Answer

Anti-IgG

Answer

Anti-IgA

Question 9

What is the normal platelet count?

Accepted Answer

Shaken baby syndrome

Answer

D1C

Answer

Microangiopathic hemolytic anaemia

Answer

Splenomegaly

Question 10

Cryoprecipitate is rich in which of the following factors?

Accepted Answer

Factor VIII

Answer

Factor II

Answer

Factor V

Answer

Factor VII

Hematopathology — MCQs

Hematopathology — MCQs

On this page

Practice by Chapter

Want unlimited practice?