Gynecologic Oncology Practice Questions

Q: What is the most common presentation of vulval carcinoma?

Pruritus. **Explanation:** **1. Why Pruritus is Correct:** Pruritus (itching) is the **most common presenting symptom** of vulval carcinoma, reported in approximately 60-70% of cases. This is often due to the long-standing association with chronic inflammatory conditions like **Lichen Sclerosus** or Vulvar Intraepithelial Neoplasia (VIN). Patients frequently have a history of chronic itching for years before a definitive mass or lesion is identified. **2. Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Pain (A):** Pain is usually a late feature, occurring only when the tumor is advanced, infected, or involves deep nerves. * **Wart-like growth (B):** While vulval cancer can present as a verrucous (warty) lesion, especially in HPV-related cases in younger women, it is less common than the symptom of pruritus. * **Non-healing ulcer (C):** An ulcerated lesion is a common physical finding upon examination, but it is typically the *sign* discovered after the patient presents with the *symptom* of itching or a palpable lump. **3. High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most common histological type:** Squamous Cell Carcinoma (SCC) accounts for >90% of cases. * **Most common site:** Labia majora (specifically the anterior two-thirds). * **Primary mode of spread:** Lymphatic spread is the most important prognostic factor. The first nodes involved are the **superficial inguinal nodes**. * **Sentinel Lymph Node Biopsy:** Indicated in Stage IA/IB (lesions <4cm and clinically node-negative). * **Staging:** Vulval cancer is staged clinically and surgically using the **FIGO system**. * **Risk Factors:** Bimodal distribution—younger women (HPV 16, 18) and older postmenopausal women (Lichen sclerosus/dystrophy).

Q: Carcinoma of the cervix with involvement of the upper one-third of the vagina but not the parametrium is classified as which stage?

Stage IIA. This question tests your knowledge of the **FIGO Staging for Cervical Cancer** (revised 2018). ### **Explanation of the Correct Answer** **Stage II** is defined as carcinoma that has extended beyond the uterus but has not reached the pelvic wall or the lower third of the vagina. It is subdivided based on the site of involvement: * **Stage IIA:** Involvement of the **upper two-thirds of the vagina** without parametrial involvement. * **IIA1:** Clinically visible lesion ≤ 4 cm. * **IIA2:** Clinically visible lesion > 4 cm. * **Stage IIB:** Involvement of the **parametrium** (but not reaching the pelvic side wall). Since the question specifies involvement of the upper one-third of the vagina without parametrial involvement, it falls squarely into **Stage IIA**. ### **Why Other Options are Incorrect** * **Stage IIIA (Option B):** Involves the **lower third** of the vagina, but does not extend to the pelvic wall. * **Stage IIB (Option C):** Specifically involves the **parametrium**. The presence or absence of parametrial involvement is the key clinical distinction between IIA and IIB. * **Stage IIIB (Option D):** Extension to the **pelvic wall** and/or causes hydronephrosis or a non-functioning kidney. ### **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG** * **Clinical Staging:** Cervical cancer is primarily staged **clinically** (using physical exam, colposcopy, cystoscopy, and proctoscopy), though the 2018 FIGO update now allows the use of imaging (MRI/CT/PET) and pathology to assign the stage. * **The "Cut-off" for Surgery:** Generally, Stage **IIA1 and below** are treated surgically (Radical Hysterectomy). Stage **IIB and above** (involving parametrium) are treated with **Concurrent Chemoradiotherapy (CCRT)**. * **Stage IVA vs. IVB:** IVA involves adjacent organs (bladder/rectum mucosa); IVB involves distant metastasis.

Q: The process of carcinogenesis in carcinoma of the cervix begins at which anatomical location?

Transformation zone. **Explanation:** The correct answer is **C. Transformation zone**. **Why it is correct:** The transformation zone (TZ) is the area of the cervix where the original **columnar epithelium** of the endocervix is replaced by **stratified squamous epithelium** through a process called **squamous metaplasia**. This region is highly metabolically active and contains undifferentiated reserve cells. When High-Risk Human Papillomavirus (HR-HPV) infection occurs, the virus preferentially integrates into the DNA of these unstable, transforming cells. This disruption of the cell cycle (via E6 and E7 oncoproteins) leads to dysplasia (CIN) and eventually invasive squamous cell carcinoma. **Why other options are incorrect:** * **A. Endocervix:** This is lined by simple columnar epithelium. While adenocarcinoma can arise here, the vast majority of cervical cancers (squamous cell type) originate at the junctional TZ. * **B. Ectocervix:** This is lined by mature, stable stratified squamous epithelium. While it can be involved as the cancer spreads, it is not the primary site where the neoplastic process initiates. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Squamocolumnar Junction (SCJ):** The TZ is located between the original SCJ and the new SCJ. Its location varies with age and hormonal status (moves inward/cephalad after menopause). * **Screening:** Pap smears and HPV DNA testing specifically aim to sample cells from the transformation zone. A Pap smear is considered "satisfactory" only if TZ cells (endocervical cells) are present. * **Colposcopy:** The primary goal of colposcopy is to visualize the entire transformation zone to identify the most dysplastic area for biopsy. * **Most Common Histology:** Squamous cell carcinoma (80-85%) is the most common type, followed by Adenocarcinoma.

Q: Which of the following malignant ovarian germ cell tumor variants has the best prognosis?

Dysgerminoma. **Explanation:** **Dysgerminoma** is the most common malignant ovarian germ cell tumor (OGCT) and carries the **best prognosis** among all malignant variants. The primary reason for its excellent survival rate (over 95% in early stages) is its extreme **radiosensitivity** and **chemosensitivity**. Unlike other germ cell tumors, dysgerminomas are often diagnosed at Stage I and respond exceptionally well to the BEP (Bleomycin, Etoposide, Cisplatin) regimen. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Yolk Sac Tumor (Endodermal Sinus Tumor):** This is highly aggressive and spreads rapidly. While chemotherapy has improved outcomes, it historically had a much poorer prognosis than dysgerminoma. It is characterized by elevated **AFP** and **Schiller-Duval bodies**. * **Immature Teratoma:** The prognosis depends strictly on the **histological grade** (amount of immature neural tissue). While treatable, Grade 2 and 3 tumors are more aggressive than dysgerminomas. * **Mature Teratoma (Dermoid Cyst):** This is a **benign** tumor. The question specifically asks for the "malignant" variant with the best prognosis. While its prognosis is technically "best" because it is non-cancerous, it does not fit the category of malignant germ cell tumors. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Tumor Marker:** Dysgerminoma is associated with elevated **LDH** and sometimes hCG. * **Association:** It is the most common malignancy found in patients with **gonadal dysgenesis** (e.g., Swyer syndrome). * **Microscopy:** Look for "Fried egg appearance" (clear cytoplasm, central nuclei) and **lymphocytic infiltration** of the stroma. * **Management:** Fertility-sparing surgery (Unilateral Salpingo-oophorectomy) is the standard of care for young patients.

Q: Attacks of flushing and cyanosis occur in which type of ovarian tumors?

Carcinoid tumors of ovary. **Explanation:** The correct answer is **D. Carcinoid tumors of ovary**. **Mechanism:** Ovarian carcinoid tumors are rare germ cell tumors (often arising within a mature cystic teratoma). They secrete vasoactive substances, primarily **serotonin (5-HT)**, bradykinin, and histamine, directly into the systemic circulation. Unlike intestinal carcinoids, which must metastasize to the liver to cause symptoms (due to the "first-pass effect" where the liver inactivates serotonin), **primary ovarian carcinoids** bypass the portal circulation. This allows the secretagogues to reach the systemic circulation directly, leading to **Carcinoid Syndrome**, characterized by episodic **flushing, cyanosis, diarrhea, and bronchospasm.** **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **A. Struma ovarii:** This is a specialized teratoma composed primarily of thyroid tissue. It presents with features of **hyperthyroidism** (tachycardia, tremors, weight loss), not carcinoid flushing. * **B. Krukenberg's tumor:** This is a metastatic signet-ring cell carcinoma, usually originating from the stomach. It typically presents with bilateral ovarian enlargement and ascites, not hormonal flushing. * **C. Arrhenoblastoma (Sertoli-Leydig Cell Tumor):** These are sex cord-stromal tumors that secrete androgens. They lead to **virilization** (hirsutism, clitoromegaly, deepening of voice), not vasomotor symptoms. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Primary vs. Secondary:** Primary ovarian carcinoid can cause carcinoid syndrome **without liver metastasis**, whereas GI carcinoids require liver metastasis to manifest the syndrome. * **Histology:** Look for "Insular" or "Trabecular" patterns and Argentaffin/Argyrophil positivity. * **Diagnostic Marker:** Elevated 24-hour urinary **5-HIAA** (5-Hydroxyindoleacetic acid). * **Cardiac Involvement:** Long-standing cases can lead to right-sided heart valve fibrosis (Tricuspid regurgitation/Pulmonary stenosis).

Q: All of the following are prognostic factors of carcinoma endometrium, EXCEPT:

Enlarged uterine cavity. In endometrial carcinoma, prognosis is primarily determined by factors that reflect the **surgical-pathological stage** and the biological aggressiveness of the tumor. **Why "Enlarged uterine cavity" is the correct answer:** While an enlarged uterus may be a clinical finding during examination, the **size of the uterine cavity** is no longer considered a significant prognostic factor in modern FIGO staging. Historically, it was part of the 1971 clinical staging, but it has been replaced by more precise pathological markers that correlate better with survival and recurrence. **Explanation of incorrect options (Prognostic Factors):** * **Pelvic node involvement:** This is one of the most critical prognostic factors. Lymph node metastasis automatically upgrades the disease to Stage IIIC, significantly decreasing the 5-year survival rate. * **Deep myometrial involvement:** Invasion into the outer half of the myometrium (Stage IB) increases the risk of lymphovascular space invasion (LVSI) and lymph node metastasis. * **Poor differentiation (Grade 3):** Histological grade is a major predictor of outcome. High-grade tumors are more likely to be aggressive, non-endometrioid (like serous or clear cell), and have a higher propensity for distant spread. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most important prognostic factor:** Histological type and grade. * **Most common site of distant metastasis:** Lungs. * **Staging:** Endometrial cancer is **surgically staged** (FIGO). * **Risk Factors:** Obesity (most common), nulliparity, late menopause, and Lynch Syndrome (HNPCC). * **Protective Factors:** Combined oral contraceptives and smoking (due to anti-estrogenic effects, though not recommended for health).

Q: What is the primary group of lymph nodes affected in cervical carcinoma?

Obturator nodes. ### Explanation **1. Why Obturator nodes are correct:** Cervical carcinoma primarily spreads via the lymphatic system in an orderly, stepwise fashion. The **Obturator nodes** (part of the external iliac group) are considered the **primary/sentinel station** for cervical drainage. The cervix drains first into the primary group, which includes the paracervical, obturator, external iliac, and internal iliac nodes. Among these, the obturator nodes are the most frequently involved early in the disease process. **2. Analysis of incorrect options:** * **A. Common iliac group:** These are considered **secondary nodes**. They receive drainage from the primary groups (external/internal iliacs). Involvement usually indicates more advanced disease (Stage IIIB/IVA). * **B. Inguinal nodes:** These nodes typically drain the lower third of the vagina, the vulva, and the skin below the umbilicus. They are not a primary site for cervical cancer unless there is significant vaginal extension. * **C. Para-aortic nodes:** These are **tertiary nodes**. Involvement of para-aortic nodes represents distant metastasis (Stage IVB in FIGO 2018, though now specifically noted in surgical staging). They receive drainage from the common iliac nodes. **3. NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Order of Spread:** Primary (Obturator/External/Internal Iliac) → Secondary (Common Iliac) → Tertiary (Para-aortic). * **Most common site of distant metastasis:** Lungs. * **Ureteric involvement:** The most common cause of death in cervical cancer is **Uremia** due to bilateral ureteric obstruction (post-renal failure). * **FIGO Staging:** Remember that cervical cancer staging is now primarily **clinical** but allows for imaging (MRI/CT) and pathological findings where available. * **Sentinel Lymph Node (SLN) Mapping:** Usually uses Technetium-99 or Indocyanine Green (ICG) to identify the first node (often the obturator) to avoid complete lymphadenectomy morbidity.

Question 1

What is the most common presentation of vulval carcinoma?

Accepted Answer

Pruritus

Answer

Pain

Answer

Wart-like growth

Answer

Non-healing ulcer

Question 2

Carcinoma of the cervix with involvement of the upper one-third of the vagina but not the parametrium is classified as which stage?

Accepted Answer

Stage IIA

Answer

Stage IIIA

Answer

Stage IIB

Answer

Stage IIIB

Question 3

The process of carcinogenesis in carcinoma of the cervix begins at which anatomical location?

Accepted Answer

Transformation zone

Answer

Endocervix

Answer

Ectocervix

Answer

None of the above

Question 4

What is the most common complication after radical hysterectomy?

Accepted Answer

Ureteral injury

Answer

Bladder atony

Answer

Prolapse of vaginal vault

Answer

Bowel dysfunction

Question 5

A 35-year-old female P3+0 is observed to have CIN grade III on colposcopic biopsy. What is the best initial management?

Accepted Answer

LEEP (Loop Electrosurgical Excision Procedure)

Answer

Cryosurgery

Answer

Conization

Answer

Hysterectomy

Question 6

Which of the following malignant ovarian germ cell tumor variants has the best prognosis?

Accepted Answer

Dysgerminoma

Answer

Yolk sac tumor

Answer

Immature teratoma

Answer

Mature teratoma

Question 7

Attacks of flushing and cyanosis occur in which type of ovarian tumors?

Accepted Answer

Carcinoid tumors of ovary

Answer

Struma ovarii

Answer

Krukenberg's tumor

Answer

Arrhenoblastoma

Question 8

A patient presents with 22 weeks of pregnancy (Gravida 4, Para 1) and carcinoma in situ. What is the preferred treatment?

Accepted Answer

Allow delivery followed by hysterectomy

Answer

Conization of the cervix

Answer

Medical termination of pregnancy (MTP) and hysterectomy

Answer

Medical termination of pregnancy (MTP) and radiotherapy

Question 9

All of the following are prognostic factors of carcinoma endometrium, EXCEPT:

Accepted Answer

Enlarged uterine cavity

Answer

Pelvic node involvement

Answer

Deep myometrial involvement

Answer

Poor differentiation

Question 10

What is the primary group of lymph nodes affected in cervical carcinoma?

Accepted Answer

Obturator nodes

Answer

Common iliac group

Answer

Inguinal nodes

Answer

Para-aortic nodes

Gynecologic Oncology — MCQs

Gynecologic Oncology — MCQs

On this page

Practice by Chapter

Want unlimited practice?