Principles of Gynecologic Oncology Surgery — MCQs

Which of the following is NOT a favorable prognostic factor for ovarian cancer?

A 67-year-old female with hypertension and diabetes presents with heavy vaginal bleeding. What is the next step in management?

A patient presents with bilateral ovarian carcinoma, capsule involvement, ascites, and paraaortic lymphadenopathy. What is the appropriate stage of the disease?

Staging of ovarian cancer when the rectum is involved.

On the 4th postoperative day of laparotomy a patient presents with bleeding & oozing from the wound. Management is :

In which stage of cervical carcinoma is surgery performed to retain the possibility of conception?

Consider the following statements regarding Carcinoma Cervix: 1. Clinical staging is done 2. Treatment if provided in stage I leads to survival rate of 80–90 % 3. Surgery is preferred in young women with stage III disease 4. HPV is considered to be the causative agent Which of the statements given above are correct?

Investigation of choice in postcoital bleeding in a 60-year-old woman is:

A 29-year-old woman at 10 weeks gestation develops severe hyperemesis gravidarum. Ultrasound reveals a complete hydatidiform mole. Her serum hCG is 500,000 mIU/mL. She undergoes suction curettage. Two weeks post-procedure, her hCG is 50,000 mIU/mL. Four weeks post-procedure, it is 45,000 mIU/mL. Analyze these findings to determine the most appropriate next step.

A middle-aged woman presented with a 6-month history of dull abdominal pain. A CT scan of the pelvis revealed a 7 cm mass involving the left ovary with irregular calcifications. The right fallopian tube and ovary were excised. What is the likely diagnosis?