Gynecologic Oncology Practice Questions

Q: Which of the following is not a recognized risk factor for endometrial carcinoma?

Smoking. ***Smoking*** - Smoking is generally not considered a risk factor for endometrial carcinoma; in fact, some studies suggest it may paradoxically **decrease risk** by altering estrogen metabolism. - While smoking is a known risk factor for many cancers, its effect on **estrogen-dependent cancers** like endometrial cancer is complex and often opposite to that of other cancers. *Obesity* - Obesity is a significant risk factor due to the increased peripheral conversion of **androgens to estrogens** in adipose tissue, leading to unopposed estrogen stimulation of the endometrium. - This **elevated estrogen exposure** promotes endometrial hyperplasia and increases the risk of malignant transformation. *Infertility* - Infertility, particularly anovulatory infertility, is often associated with **unopposed estrogen exposure** due to a lack of progesterone production. - This hormonal imbalance can lead to endometrial hyperplasia and an increased risk of developing endometrial cancer. *Tamoxifen* - Tamoxifen, a **selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM)**, acts as an estrogen antagonist in breast tissue but as an estrogen agonist in the endometrium. - This estrogenic effect on the endometrium can lead to **endometrial hyperplasia** and increase the risk of endometrial cancer, particularly when used long-term.

Q: Chemotherapeutic agents in the EMA-CO regimen include all except which one of the following?

Mithramycin. ***Mithramycin*** - **Mithramycin**, also known as **plicamycin**, is not a component of the EMA-CO regimen. It is an **antineoplastic antibiotic** that inhibits RNA synthesis and has been used in the past for **testicular cancer** and **hypercalcemia of malignancy**. - Its mechanism of action and common indications differ from the drugs in the EMA-CO protocol, which are typically used for **gestational trophoblastic neoplasia**. *Etoposide* - **Etoposide** is a **topoisomerase inhibitor** and a key component of the **EMA-CO regimen**. - It works by causing **DNA strand breaks**, leading to **apoptosis** of cancer cells, and is crucial for treating **high-risk gestational trophoblastic neoplasia**. *Actinomycin-D* - **Actinomycin-D**, also known as **dactinomycin**, is another essential component of the **EMA-CO regimen**. - It is an **antibiotic chemotherapy drug** that inhibits RNA synthesis by intercalating with DNA, commonly used in various cancers, including **gestational trophoblastic neoplasia**. *Cyclophosphamide* - **Cyclophosphamide** is an **alkylating agent** included in the **EMA-CO regimen**. - It works by forming **cross-links within DNA**, preventing cell division and leading to cancer cell death, contributing significantly to the efficacy of the regimen for **gestational trophoblastic neoplasia**.

Q: Staging of ovarian cancer when the rectum is involved.

Stage 2. ***Stage 2*** - **Rectal involvement** in ovarian cancer represents direct extension to other **pelvic structures**, which defines **Stage II disease** according to FIGO staging. - **Stage IIB** specifically includes extension to other pelvic intraperitoneal tissues, including the rectum, sigmoid colon, bladder, and uterus. - The rectum is a **pelvic organ**, and its involvement represents local spread within the pelvis, not distant metastasis. *Stage I* - **Stage I** ovarian cancer is confined to the **ovaries or fallopian tubes** only. - There is no extension beyond the ovaries or fallopian tubes, making rectal involvement inconsistent with this stage. *Stage 3* - **Stage III** involves tumor **outside the pelvis** with peritoneal implants beyond the pelvis or positive retroperitoneal lymph nodes. - This represents intra-abdominal spread but still within the peritoneal cavity, not limited to pelvic organ involvement like the rectum. *Stage 4* - **Stage IV** is defined by **distant metastasis outside the peritoneal cavity**, including parenchymal liver or spleen metastasis, pleural effusion with positive cytology, or metastasis to extra-abdominal organs. - Direct rectal involvement does not constitute distant metastasis and therefore is not Stage IV.

Q: Which of the following is a risk factor for cervical cancer?

Persistent infection with high-risk HPV types.. ***Persistent infection with high-risk HPV types.*** - **Persistent infection with high-risk human papillomavirus (HPV) types**, particularly HPV-16 and HPV-18, is the **primary and most significant risk factor** for cervical cancer. - HPV infection is the **necessary cause** of virtually all cervical cancers, leading to cellular changes that can progress from **dysplasia** to **invasive cervical carcinoma** over time. - This is the **most important risk factor** among all options. *Chronic cigarette smoking.* - Smoking **is an independent risk factor** for cervical cancer that approximately doubles the risk in women. - Tobacco by-products in cervical mucus damage cervical cell DNA and impair immune function. - In women with HPV infection, smoking acts as a **strong cofactor** that increases progression to cervical cancer by impairing the body's ability to clear HPV infections. - However, **HPV infection is the stronger and necessary risk factor**, making Option A the best answer. *Delayed onset of menstruation (late menarche).* - **Late menarche is NOT a risk factor** for cervical cancer. - Early menarche is weakly associated with increased risk of breast cancer due to prolonged estrogen exposure, but menarche timing has no established relationship with cervical cancer risk. - Cervical cancer risk is primarily related to **HPV exposure**, not hormonal factors like age at menarche. *Having no children (nulliparity).* - **Nulliparity is NOT a risk factor** for cervical cancer. - Conversely, **multiparity** (having 3 or more full-term pregnancies) is associated with increased cervical cancer risk, possibly due to hormonal changes, immunosuppression during pregnancy, or increased HPV exposure. - Among parous women, higher parity increases risk compared to lower parity.

Q: Which of the following is NOT a favorable prognostic factor for ovarian cancer?

Clear cell carcinoma. ***Clear cell carcinoma*** - Clear cell carcinoma is **NOT a favorable prognostic factor** and is actually associated with a **poor prognosis** in ovarian cancer. - It is typically **chemoresistant** to standard platinum-based therapy, with lower response rates compared to serous carcinomas. - Clear cell histology is associated with **worse survival outcomes** even when diagnosed at early stages. - This aggressive subtype accounts for higher mortality rates relative to other epithelial ovarian cancers. *Young age* - **Younger patients** with ovarian cancer tend to have a better overall prognosis compared to older patients. - This is often attributed to **better physiological reserve** and ability to tolerate aggressive treatments. - Younger age is a well-established **favorable prognostic factor**. *Well differentiated tumor* - **Well-differentiated tumors** (low grade) generally have a slower growth rate and are less aggressive, leading to a **more favorable prognosis**. - **Poorly differentiated tumors** (high grade) are aggressive and associated with worse outcomes. - Tumor differentiation is one of the key histological prognostic factors. *No ascites* - The absence of **ascites** (fluid accumulation in the abdomen) is indicative of a lower tumor burden and less advanced disease, which is a **favorable prognostic sign**. - The presence of ascites often suggests widespread peritoneal dissemination and is associated with a **worse prognosis**.

Q: Which of the following treatment options best represents the standard management approach for stage IB cervical cancer?

Surgery. ***Surgery*** - For **stage IB cervical cancer**, **radical hysterectomy with pelvic lymphadenectomy** is the primary standard surgical treatment option. - Surgery alone is appropriate for cases without high-risk features on final pathology. - This represents the cornerstone primary management approach for early-stage cervical cancer. - Alternative primary treatment is definitive **concurrent chemoradiation**, which is considered equivalent to surgery. *Surgery and Radiotherapy* - **Adjuvant radiotherapy** (or chemoradiation) is added only if **high-risk pathologic features** are found post-surgery, such as positive margins, parametrial involvement, or positive lymph nodes. - This is not the standard primary approach but rather selective adjuvant therapy based on surgical pathology findings. - Not all stage IB cases require adjuvant radiotherapy. *Surgery and Chemotherapy* - **Adjuvant chemotherapy alone** is NOT standard management for cervical cancer. - When adjuvant therapy is needed, it is **concurrent chemoradiation** (radiation with chemotherapy as a radiosensitizer), not chemotherapy alone. - Chemotherapy alone does not provide adequate locoregional control for cervical cancer. *Chemotherapy and Radiotherapy* - **Concurrent chemoradiation** is the primary treatment for **locally advanced cervical cancer** (stages IB3 with certain features, IIB-IVA). - It is also an alternative to surgery for primary treatment of stage IB, but the question asks for standard management, which traditionally refers to the surgical approach for early-stage disease. - This is definitive treatment without surgery for larger or locally advanced tumors.

Q: A 45-year-old woman with a diagnosis of atypical endometrial hyperplasia should be treated by:

Hysterectomy. ***Hysterectomy*** - **Atypical endometrial hyperplasia (AEH)**, also known as **endometrial intraepithelial neoplasia (EIN)**, carries a significant risk of progression to **endometrial cancer** (up to 25-40% when left untreated), making definitive surgical management with **hysterectomy** the most appropriate treatment, especially in women who have completed childbearing. - For a 45-year-old woman, **total hysterectomy** (often with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy) ensures complete removal of the diseased endometrium and eliminates the risk of future **malignancy**. *Progesterone* - **Progestin therapy** (high-dose progestogens) might be considered for atypical endometrial hyperplasia in women who desire to preserve their fertility, as it can induce regression of hyperplasia. - However, it requires **close follow-up** with endometrial biopsies every 3-6 months to monitor for treatment success and rule out progression to cancer. - This is generally reserved for younger women with strong fertility desires, not the standard treatment for a 45-year-old. *Hysteroscopic resection* - While hysteroscopic resection can remove localized polyps or areas of hyperplasia, it is generally **not sufficient** for atypical endometrial hyperplasia due to the diffuse nature of the condition and the high risk of occult or future malignancy. - This method carries a risk of incomplete removal and may miss areas of undiagnosed **carcinoma**. *Danazol* - **Danazol** is a synthetic androgen used to treat conditions like **endometriosis** and **fibrocystic breast disease** due to its anti-estrogenic and immunosuppressive properties. - It does **not have a primary role** in the treatment of atypical endometrial hyperplasia, which specifically requires management targeting estrogen-driven proliferation with either surgery or progestin therapy.

Q: Most common site for extra-mammary Paget's disease is:

Vulva. ***Vulva*** - **Extramammary Paget's disease** most commonly occurs in the **vulvar region**, presenting as a red, eczematous lesion [1]. - It is often associated with underlying **adenocarcinoma** or other malignancies in the genital area [2]. *Ovary* - Paget's disease is **rarely** found in the ovary, which is primarily associated with **gonadal** tumors. - Symptoms and lesions are not typically localized to the **ovarian** area. *Vagina* - Extramammary Paget's disease does not commonly present in the vagina and is **not a typical site** for the lesions. - Vaginal cancers are usually **squamous cell carcinomas**, which differ from Paget's disease pathology. *Uterus* - The uterus is not a common site for **extramammary Paget's disease**, which primarily affects the external genitalia. - Uterine disorders more typically include **leiomyomas** or **endometrial carcinomas**, differing significantly from Paget's features. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Female Genital Tract, p. 1004. [2] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Female Genital Tract Disease, pp. 465-466.

Q: What type of ovarian neoplasm is most likely to occur in a 14-year-old girl?

Germ cell tumour. ***Germ cell tumour*** - **Germ cell tumors** are the **most common type of ovarian neoplasm** in females under the age of 20, including adolescent girls [1]. - These tumors arise from the primordial germ cells of the ovary and include types such as **dysgerminoma**, **teratoma**, and **yolk sac tumor** [2], [3]. *Epithelial tumour* - **Epithelial ovarian tumors** are far more common in **older women**, typically those over 40 years of age. - They are rare in adolescents and young women. *Sertoli-Leydig cell tumour* - **Sertoli-Leydig cell tumors** are a type of **sex cord-stromal tumor** that can occur at any age but are relatively rare overall. - While they can affect young women, they are not the most common type of ovarian neoplasm in a 14-year-old. *Granulosa cell tumour* - **Granulosa cell tumors** are another type of **sex cord-stromal tumor** and are the most common malignant sex cord-stromal tumor. - They tend to occur predominantly in **adult women**, with a mean age of presentation around 50-55 years, making them less likely in an adolescent.

Question 1

Which of the following is not a recognized risk factor for endometrial carcinoma?

Accepted Answer

Smoking

Answer

Infertility

Answer

Obesity

Answer

Tamoxifen

Question 2

Chemotherapeutic agents in the EMA-CO regimen include all except which one of the following?

Accepted Answer

Mithramycin

Answer

Etoposide

Answer

Actinomycin-D

Answer

Cyclophosphamide

Question 3

Staging of ovarian cancer when the rectum is involved.

Accepted Answer

Stage 2

Answer

Stage I

Answer

Stage 4

Answer

Stage 3

Question 4

Which of the following is a risk factor for cervical cancer?

Accepted Answer

Persistent infection with high-risk HPV types.

Answer

Chronic cigarette smoking.

Answer

Delayed onset of menstruation (late menarche).

Answer

Having no children (nulliparity).

Question 5

Which of the following is NOT a favorable prognostic factor for ovarian cancer?

Accepted Answer

Clear cell carcinoma

Answer

Well differentiated tumor

Answer

No ascites

Answer

Young age

Question 6

Which of the following treatment options best represents the standard management approach for stage IB cervical cancer?

Accepted Answer

Surgery

Answer

Surgery and Radiotherapy

Answer

Chemotherapy and Radiotherapy

Answer

Surgery and Chemotherapy

Question 7

A 45-year-old woman with a diagnosis of atypical endometrial hyperplasia should be treated by:

Accepted Answer

Hysterectomy

Answer

Progesterone

Answer

Hysteroscopic resection

Answer

Danazol

Question 8

Most common site for extra-mammary Paget's disease is:

Accepted Answer

Vulva

Answer

Uterus

Answer

Vagina

Answer

Ovary

Question 9

What type of ovarian neoplasm is most likely to occur in a 14-year-old girl?

Accepted Answer

Germ cell tumour

Answer

Epithelial tumour

Answer

Granulosa cell tumour

Answer

Sertoli-Leydig cell tumour

Question 10

Investigation of choice in postcoital bleeding in a 60-year-old woman is:

Accepted Answer

Colposcopy and biopsy

Answer

Pap smear

Answer

Pelvic ultrasound

Answer

Cone excision of cervix

Gynecologic Oncology — MCQs

Gynecologic Oncology — MCQs

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