Gynecologic Oncology Practice Questions

Q: True regarding vulval cancer is all except?

Iliac group of nodes are primary site of metastasis. **Explanation:** The lymphatic drainage of the vulva follows a predictable, stepwise pattern. The **superficial inguinal nodes** are the primary site of metastasis, followed by the deep inguinal (Cloquet’s node) and then the **external iliac nodes**. Direct metastasis to the iliac nodes without involving the inguinal nodes is extremely rare. Therefore, Option B is incorrect and the right answer for this "except" question. **Analysis of Options:** * **Option A:** HPV (specifically types 16 and 18) is a major causative factor, particularly in younger patients. It is associated with the "Basaloid/Warty" type of Vulvar Intraepithelial Neoplasia (VIN). * **Option C:** Smoking is a well-established independent risk factor for vulvar cancer and its precursors, as it impairs local mucosal immunity and acts synergistically with HPV. * **Option D:** Bowen’s disease (High-grade Squamous Intraepithelial Lesion) is a pre-cancerous condition. While wide local excision is preferred today to preserve anatomy, traditional management includes simple vulvectomy or skinning vulvectomy for multifocal disease. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** 1. **Most common histological type:** Squamous cell carcinoma (approx. 90%). 2. **Sentinel Lymph Node Biopsy (SLNB):** Indicated in early-stage disease (Stage T1/T2, <4cm) with clinically negative nodes to reduce the morbidity of radical groin dissection. 3. **Staging:** Vulvar cancer is staged **surgically** (FIGO). 4. **The "Sentinel" Node of the Groin:** Cloquet’s node (the highest deep inguinal node, located under the inguinal ligament). If this is negative, iliac nodes are usually negative.

Q: Ovarian tumor involving retroperitoneal lymph nodes is seen in which stage?

Stage IIIA. In ovarian cancer staging (FIGO 2014), the involvement of **retroperitoneal lymph nodes** signifies a shift from Stage II (pelvic extension) to **Stage III** (extrapelvic spread). ### Why Stage IIIA is Correct According to the FIGO staging system, **Stage IIIA1** is specifically defined by metastasis to retroperitoneal lymph nodes only, without intraperitoneal involvement. It is further subdivided based on the size of the nodal involvement: * **Stage IIIA1(i):** Metastasis ≤ 10 mm. * **Stage IIIA1(ii):** Metastasis > 10 mm. Since Stage IIIA is the first stage where retroperitoneal nodal involvement is categorized, it is the most accurate answer. ### Why Other Options are Incorrect * **Stage IIB:** This involves extension to other pelvic intraperitoneal tissues (e.g., bladder, rectum) but is confined to the **pelvis**. It does not involve lymph nodes. * **Stage IIIB:** This stage is characterized by **microscopic** extrapelvic (peritoneal) involvement beyond the pelvis, with or without retroperitoneal lymph nodes. * **Stage IIIC:** This involves **macroscopic** extrapelvic peritoneal metastasis > 2 cm, with or without retroperitoneal lymph nodes. ### NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls * **Most common route of spread:** Ovarian cancer primarily spreads via **exfoliation/seeding** (peritoneal) rather than lymphatic spread. * **Lymphatic Drainage:** The primary lymphatic drainage of the ovary is via the **infundibulopelvic ligament** to the **para-aortic lymph nodes** (at the level of the renal hilum). * **Staging:** Ovarian cancer is staged **surgically**. * **Stage IV:** Distant metastasis, including parenchymal liver/splenic metastasis or pleural effusion with positive cytology. Note: Involvement of inguinal nodes is Stage IVB.

Q: A 40-year-old woman presents with endometrial carcinoma. Her family history reveals that her mother died of endometrial cancer at age 50, while her 42-year-old brother was recently diagnosed with colon cancer. What gene is most likely to be mutated in this family?

MSH2. **Explanation:** The clinical presentation and family history are classic for **Lynch Syndrome** (Hereditary Non-Polyposis Colorectal Cancer - HNPCC). This autosomal dominant condition is characterized by a high risk of colorectal, endometrial, and ovarian cancers. In women with Lynch Syndrome, the lifetime risk of endometrial cancer (40-60%) often equals or exceeds the risk of colorectal cancer. **Why MSH2 is correct:** Lynch Syndrome is caused by germline mutations in **DNA Mismatch Repair (MMR) genes**, most commonly **MLH1** and **MSH2** (accounting for ~90% of cases), followed by MSH6 and PMS2. These mutations lead to microsatellite instability (MSI). Given the combination of early-onset endometrial and colon cancer in first-degree relatives, a mutation in a mismatch repair gene like **MSH2** is the most likely etiology. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **WT-1:** Associated with Wilms tumor and certain syndromic renal/gonadal anomalies (e.g., WAGR, Denys-Drash syndrome), not adult-onset epithelial cancers. * **APC:** Mutated in Familial Adenomatous Polyposis (FAP). While it causes profuse colorectal polyps and cancer, it is not typically associated with endometrial carcinoma. * **p53:** The "guardian of the genome," mutated in Li-Fraumeni syndrome. While it increases the risk of many cancers (sarcomas, breast, brain), it is not the primary driver of the specific colon-endometrial cluster seen here. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Amsterdam II Criteria:** Used to identify Lynch Syndrome (3-2-1 rule: 3 relatives with HNPCC-associated cancer, 2 generations, 1 diagnosed before age 50). * **Screening:** Women with Lynch Syndrome require annual endometrial biopsies starting at age 30–35 and may consider prophylactic hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy (BSO) after completing childbearing. * **Most common extra-colonic malignancy** in Lynch Syndrome is Endometrial Carcinoma.

Q: A 35-year-old female presents with postcoital bleeding. What is the next step in management?

Pap smear and colposcopy. **Explanation:** **1. Why Option A is Correct:** Postcoital bleeding is a classic "red flag" symptom of cervical cancer. In a symptomatic patient, the primary goal is to rule out malignancy. According to standard clinical guidelines, the initial evaluation of postcoital bleeding involves a thorough physical examination and a **combination of Pap smear (cytology) and Colposcopy**. While the Pap smear screens for cellular abnormalities, colposcopy allows for a magnified visualization of the transformation zone to identify suspicious areas. This dual approach ensures high sensitivity in detecting pre-invasive or invasive lesions. **2. Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Options B & C (VIA/VILI):** Visual Inspection with Acetic Acid (VIA) and Lugol’s Iodine (VILI) are primarily used as low-cost screening tools in resource-limited settings. They are not the gold standard for a symptomatic patient in a clinical setup where colposcopy is available. * **Option D (Colposcopy-directed biopsy):** This is the "gold standard" for diagnosis, but it is the *next* step only **after** an abnormal area is identified during the colposcopy. You cannot perform a directed biopsy without first performing the colposcopy to locate the lesion. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most common cause** of postcoital bleeding in reproductive-age women: Cervical ectopy or cervicitis. * **Most serious cause** to rule out: Cervical carcinoma. * If a **gross growth** is visible on the cervix during speculum examination, the next step is a **direct punch biopsy**, bypassing the Pap smear and colposcopy. * **Bethesda System** is used for reporting cervical cytology (Pap smear).

Q: Adenocarcinoma of the uterus along with rhabdomyosarcoma of the uterus is seen. What is this condition called?

Mixed Mullerian tumour. **Explanation:** The condition described is a **Malignant Mixed Mullerian Tumour (MMMT)**, also known as **Carcinosarcoma**. These are highly aggressive neoplasms that contain both a malignant epithelial component (**Adenocarcinoma**) and a malignant mesenchymal component (**Sarcoma**). **1. Why Mixed Mullerian Tumour is correct:** MMMTs are "biphasic" tumors. The term "Mixed" refers to the presence of both epithelial and stromal malignancies. Because the uterus is a Mullerian duct derivative, these tumors are classified as Mixed Mullerian Tumours. **2. Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Homologous Sarcoma:** This refers to a mixed tumor where the sarcomatous component is tissue normally found in the uterus (e.g., leiomyosarcoma or endometrial stromal sarcoma). * **Heterologous Sarcoma:** This is a subtype of MMMT where the sarcomatous component consists of tissues *not* normally found in the uterus (e.g., **Rhabdomyosarcoma**, Chondrosarcoma, or Osteosarcoma). While the question describes a heterologous element, "Mixed Mullerian Tumour" is the overarching clinical diagnosis for the combination of adenocarcinoma and sarcoma. * **Carcinoma Botryoides:** This is a variant of Embryonal Rhabdomyosarcoma typically seen in young children (infants/toddlers), presenting as "grape-like" masses protruding from the vagina. It does not contain an adenocarcinoma component. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Risk Factors:** Postmenopausal age, long-term Tamoxifen use, and prior pelvic radiation. * **Pathogenesis:** Most evidence suggests these are "metaplastic" carcinomas (monoclonal origin) rather than true collisions of two different cell types. * **Prognosis:** Extremely poor; they spread primarily via lymphatics like high-grade endometrial carcinomas but are more aggressive.

Q: Which investigation is not part of the FIGO staging of carcinoma of the cervix?

Pelvic ultrasound. **Explanation:** The FIGO staging for carcinoma cervix is primarily **clinical**. While the staging system was updated in 2018 to allow for advanced imaging (MRI, CT, PET) and pathology where available, the "traditional" clinical staging framework remains the foundation for exams like NEET-PG. **Why Pelvic Ultrasound is the correct answer:** According to FIGO guidelines, **Pelvic Ultrasound is not a formal component** of the staging system. While it is a useful tool for initial screening or assessing pelvic masses, it lacks the standardized accuracy required for formal staging compared to the specific investigations permitted by FIGO. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Cystoscopy (A):** This is a permitted investigation to evaluate for Stage IVA (involvement of the bladder mucosa). * **Chest X-ray (B):** This is allowed to rule out distant pulmonary metastasis (Stage IVB). * **Intravenous Pyelogram (IVP) (C):** Traditionally, IVP is used to detect hydronephrosis or a non-functioning kidney, which automatically upgrades the disease to **Stage IIIB**. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Staging Method:** Carcinoma cervix is the only gynecological cancer that is staged **clinically** (most others, like endometrial and ovarian, are staged surgically). * **Permitted Investigations:** Clinical exam (under anesthesia), Colposcopy, Biopsy, Conization, Cystoscopy, Proctosigmoidoscopy, Chest X-ray, and IVP. * **2018 Update:** FIGO now allows "cross-sectional imaging" (MRI for local extent, PET-CT for nodes) to assign a stage, but if these are unavailable, the clinical investigations listed above remain the standard. * **Hydronephrosis Rule:** The presence of hydronephrosis or a non-functioning kidney on IVP/Imaging classifies the patient as **Stage IIIB**, regardless of other findings.

Q: A 56-year-old woman presents with post-menopausal bleeding. Her transvaginal scan shows an endometrial thickness of 8 mm. Endometrial biopsy shows moderately differentiated adenocarcinoma cells. Which of the following is the most appropriate staging investigation?

MRI scan of the pelvis. **Explanation:** The patient has been diagnosed with **Endometrial Carcinoma** (Type I, based on the histology of moderately differentiated adenocarcinoma). In endometrial cancer, the staging is primarily **surgical** (FIGO staging). However, preoperative imaging is crucial for surgical planning. **Why MRI Pelvis is the Correct Answer:** MRI with contrast is the **gold standard** for the preoperative evaluation of endometrial cancer. Its superior soft-tissue contrast allows for the accurate assessment of: 1. **Myometrial invasion:** Determining if the tumor has invaded >50% of the myometrium (Stage IA vs. IB). 2. **Cervical stromal involvement:** Identifying Stage II disease. 3. **Local extension:** Assessing for bladder or rectal involvement. This information helps the surgeon decide whether to perform a standard staging laparotomy or a more radical procedure with lymphadenectomy. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **A. CT scan of the pelvis:** While useful for detecting distant metastases or gross lymphadenopathy, CT is inferior to MRI in assessing the depth of myometrial invasion. * **B. Chest X-ray:** This is a routine part of the metastatic workup to rule out lung involvement, but it is not the primary investigation for local staging of the tumor itself. * **D. Hysterosalpingography:** This is contraindicated in suspected or confirmed endometrial malignancy as it can potentially cause the transtubal spread of malignant cells. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most common symptom:** Post-menopausal bleeding (PMB). * **Cut-off for ET:** In a post-menopausal woman with bleeding, an Endometrial Thickness (ET) **>4 mm** on TVS warrants a biopsy. * **Staging System:** FIGO staging for endometrial cancer is **Surgical**. * **MRI Sequence:** Dynamic Contrast-Enhanced (DCE) MRI is the most sensitive sequence for assessing myometrial invasion.

Q: A patient is diagnosed with endometrial carcinoma. Based on findings of bleeding per vagina (PV) and enlarged inguinal nodes, what is the most appropriate stage?

Stage IV. **Explanation:** The staging of endometrial carcinoma follows the **FIGO 2023 (and 2009) classification**, which is primarily surgical. The presence of **enlarged inguinal nodes** is the defining clinical feature in this scenario. 1. **Why Stage IV is correct:** In endometrial cancer, lymphatic spread typically follows the pelvic and para-aortic chains. Inguinal lymph nodes are considered **distant metastases** (Stage IVB). According to FIGO staging, involvement of distant organs, including inguinal lymph nodes, intraperitoneal disease beyond the pelvis, or bone/lung metastasis, upgrades the disease to **Stage IVB**. 2. **Why other options are incorrect:** * **Stage I:** The tumor is confined to the corpus uteri (myometrial invasion 50% is IB). * **Stage II:** The tumor invades the cervical stroma but does not extend beyond the uterus. * **Stage III:** This involves local or regional spread. Stage IIIA involves the serosa/adnexa; IIIB involves the vagina or parametrium; IIIC involves pelvic or para-aortic lymph nodes. Crucially, **inguinal nodes are NOT regional nodes** for the endometrium; they are distant. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most common site of distant metastasis:** Lungs. * **Lymphatic Drainage:** The fundus drains to para-aortic nodes; the lower segment drains to pelvic nodes; however, drainage via the **round ligament** can lead to isolated inguinal node involvement. * **FIGO 2023 Update:** Note that Stage IIC now exists for aggressive histological types, but distant nodes remain Stage IVB. * **Standard Treatment:** Total Prostatic Hysterectomy + Bilateral Salpingo-oophorectomy (TAH+BSO) with lymphadenectomy.

Q: Cryosurgery is effective in all of the following conditions except:

Treatment of carcinoma cervix. **Explanation:** Cryosurgery is a destructive outpatient procedure that uses sub-freezing temperatures (typically using Nitrous Oxide or Carbon Dioxide) to induce cellular death through ice crystal formation and protein denaturation. **Why "Treatment of carcinoma cervix" is the correct answer:** Cryosurgery is strictly a **local destructive therapy**. It is contraindicated in invasive cervical cancer because it cannot achieve the necessary surgical margins or address potential lymph node involvement. Invasive carcinoma requires radical interventions (surgery or radiotherapy) to ensure complete oncological clearance. Using cryosurgery for malignancy would lead to incomplete treatment and poor prognosis. **Analysis of incorrect options:** * **Chronic cervicitis:** Cryosurgery is a standard treatment for symptomatic chronic cervicitis (e.g., persistent leucorrhea) as it destroys the diseased columnar epithelium, allowing healthy squamous epithelium to regrow. * **Squamous Intraepithelial Lesion (SIL):** It is highly effective for Low-grade SIL (LSIL/CIN 1) provided the lesion is small, entirely visible on the ectocervix, and the endocervical curettage (ECC) is negative. * **Condyloma acuminata:** Cryotherapy is a first-line treatment for genital warts caused by HPV, as it effectively freezes and destroys the viral-induced lesions. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Mechanism:** Cryosurgery uses the **Joule-Thompson effect** (cooling of gas as it expands through a narrow aperture). * **The "Freeze-Thaw-Freeze" Technique:** This is the standard protocol to ensure maximum tissue destruction. * **Prerequisite:** Before performing cryosurgery for SIL, **invasive cancer must be ruled out** via colposcopy and biopsy. * **Side Effect:** Patients should be counseled about a profuse, watery vaginal discharge for 2–3 weeks post-procedure.

Question 1

True regarding vulval cancer is all except?

Accepted Answer

Iliac group of nodes are primary site of metastasis

Answer

HPV virus is a causative factor

Answer

Smoking is a risk factor

Answer

Vulvectomy is the treatment for Bowen's disease

Question 2

Ovarian tumor involving retroperitoneal lymph nodes is seen in which stage?

Accepted Answer

Stage IIIA

Answer

Stage IIB

Answer

Stage IIIB

Answer

Stage IIIC

Question 3

A 40-year-old woman presents with endometrial carcinoma. Her family history reveals that her mother died of endometrial cancer at age 50, while her 42-year-old brother was recently diagnosed with colon cancer. What gene is most likely to be mutated in this family?

Accepted Answer

MSH2

Answer

WT-1

Answer

APC

Answer

p53

Question 4

A 35-year-old female presents with postcoital bleeding. What is the next step in management?

Accepted Answer

Pap smear and colposcopy

Answer

Visual inspection with acetic acid

Answer

Visual inspection with Lugol's iodine

Answer

Colposcopy-directed biopsy

Question 5

Adenocarcinoma of the uterus along with rhabdomyosarcoma of the uterus is seen. What is this condition called?

Accepted Answer

Mixed Mullerian tumour

Answer

Homologous sarcoma

Answer

Heterologous sarcoma

Answer

Carcinoma botryoides

Question 6

Which investigation is not part of the FIGO staging of carcinoma of the cervix?

Accepted Answer

Pelvic ultrasound

Answer

Cystoscopy

Answer

Chest X-ray

Answer

Intravenous pyelogram (IVP)

Question 7

Which of the following findings are indications for direct lymph node dissection in endometrial carcinoma?

Accepted Answer

Penetration into half of the myometrium, Clear cell carcinoma, Peritoneal metastasis

Answer

Penetration into half of the myometrium, Clear cell carcinoma, Fundal involvement

Answer

Fundal involvement, Peritoneal metastasis, Papillary serous carcinoma

Answer

Penetration into half of the myometrium, Fundal involvement, Peritoneal metastasis

Question 8

A 56-year-old woman presents with post-menopausal bleeding. Her transvaginal scan shows an endometrial thickness of 8 mm. Endometrial biopsy shows moderately differentiated adenocarcinoma cells. Which of the following is the most appropriate staging investigation?

Accepted Answer

MRI scan of the pelvis

Answer

CT scan of the pelvis

Answer

Chest X-ray

Answer

Hysterosalpingography

Question 9

A patient is diagnosed with endometrial carcinoma. Based on findings of bleeding per vagina (PV) and enlarged inguinal nodes, what is the most appropriate stage?

Accepted Answer

Stage IV

Answer

Stage II

Answer

Stage III

Answer

Stage I

Question 10

Cryosurgery is effective in all of the following conditions except:

Accepted Answer

Treatment of carcinoma cervix

Answer

Chronic cervicitis

Answer

Squamous intraepithelial lesion

Answer

Condyloma acuminata

Gynecologic Oncology — MCQs

Gynecologic Oncology — MCQs

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