Gynecologic Oncology Practice Questions

Q: What condition is characterized by a 'snow storm' appearance on ultrasound (IJSG)?

Hydatidiform mole. **Explanation:** The **'snow storm' appearance** is the classic pathognomonic ultrasonographic finding of a **Hydatidiform Mole** (specifically a Complete Mole). This appearance is caused by the presence of multiple hydropic (swollen) chorionic villi and intrauterine hemorrhage. On ultrasound, these vesicles appear as multiple small echogenic foci interspersed with tiny cystic (anechoic) spaces, filling the entire endometrial cavity without a visible fetus or gestational sac. **Analysis of Options:** * **Hydatidiform Mole (Correct):** The proliferation of trophoblastic tissue leads to the characteristic vesicular pattern. In a Complete Mole (46,XX), there is no fetal tissue, whereas a Partial Mole may show a fetus with focal cystic changes in the placenta. * **Invasive Mole:** While it arises from a hydatidiform mole, it is characterized by the invasion of these vesicles into the **myometrium**. The ultrasound would show focal myometrial echoes and increased vascularity (on Doppler) rather than just a confined intrauterine 'snow storm.' * **Twin Pregnancy:** This would show two distinct gestational sacs or two fetuses with separate heartbeats. * **Ectopic Pregnancy:** Typically presents with an empty uterus, a pseudo-gestational sac, and an adnexal mass (e.g., 'blob sign' or 'tubal ring sign'). **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **hCG Levels:** Extremely high (often >100,000 mIU/mL) in complete moles. * **Ovarian Finding:** Bilateral **Theca Lutein Cysts** are often seen due to high hCG levels (hyperreactio luteinalis). * **Histopathology:** "Swiss cheese" appearance or "bunch of grapes" appearance macroscopically. * **Management:** Suction and evacuation is the treatment of choice, followed by weekly hCG monitoring until three consecutive negative results are obtained.

Q: What is the chemotherapy regimen for dysgerminoma?

Cisplatin, etoposide, bleomycin. **Explanation:** **1. Why Option A is Correct:** Dysgerminoma is the most common malignant germ cell tumor (GCT) of the ovary. These tumors are highly radiosensitive but even more **chemosensitive**. The gold standard chemotherapy regimen for all malignant ovarian germ cell tumors (except Stage IA, Grade 1 immature teratoma) is the **BEP regimen**: * **B:** Bleomycin * **E:** Etoposide * **P:** Platinum (Cisplatin) This combination is preferred because it preserves fertility while achieving high cure rates (over 90%), even in advanced stages. **2. Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Option B (CVP):** This regimen is primarily used for Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma, not epithelial or germ cell ovarian cancers. * **Option C (CAP):** This was an older regimen used for epithelial ovarian cancer. The current standard for epithelial tumors is Paclitaxel and Carboplatin. * **Option D (MOPP):** This is a historical regimen used for Hodgkin Lymphoma. **3. High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Tumor Marker:** Dysgerminoma is characteristically associated with elevated **LDH** (Lactic Dehydrogenase). It may also show mild elevations in hCG if syncytiotrophoblastic giant cells are present, but **AFP is always normal**. * **Epidemiology:** It is the most common malignant germ cell tumor associated with **gonadal dysgenesis** (Swyer Syndrome). * **Management:** In young patients, **fertility-sparing surgery** (Unilateral Salpingo-oophorectomy) is the treatment of choice, followed by BEP chemotherapy if indicated. * **Side Effect Note:** When using BEP, monitor for **Bleomycin-induced pulmonary fibrosis** and **Cisplatin-induced nephrotoxicity/ototoxicity**.

Q: Following molar pregnancy evacuation, in which timeframe do post-treatment HCG levels typically normalize?

9 weeks. **Explanation:** The normalization of Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG) levels is the primary marker for monitoring the resolution of a hydatidiform mole and screening for Gestational Trophoblastic Neoplasia (GTN). **1. Why 9 weeks is correct:** Following the suction evacuation of a molar pregnancy, serum β-hCG levels undergo a progressive decline. According to standard obstetric literature (including Williams Obstetrics), the average time for hCG to reach undetectable levels (<5 mIU/mL) is approximately **9 weeks**. While a complete mole may take slightly longer than a partial mole, the mean duration across studies for surveillance to reach the baseline is 9 weeks. **2. Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **A (3 weeks):** This is too early. While hCG levels drop sharply in the first 48 hours post-evacuation, the remaining trophoblastic tissue takes significantly longer to regress completely. * **B (6 weeks):** This is the typical timeframe for the involution of the uterus and normalization of physiological changes in a normal pregnancy, but it is generally insufficient for molar hCG clearance. * **D (12 weeks):** While some cases may take up to 12–14 weeks to normalize, it is not the "typical" or mean timeframe. If levels remain elevated or plateau by this stage, it often raises suspicion for persistent GTN. **3. High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Follow-up Protocol:** Check hCG levels every 1–2 weeks until three consecutive weekly samples are negative (<5 mIU/mL). * **Surveillance Duration:** Once negative, follow up monthly for 6 months (for complete moles). * **Contraception:** Reliable contraception (preferably OCPs) is mandatory during the follow-up period to ensure a new pregnancy does not mask the rise of GTN. * **GTN Diagnosis (FIGO Criteria):** Suspect malignancy if hCG levels plateau (4 values over 3 weeks) or rise (3 values over 2 weeks).

Q: What is the most common ovarian malignancy in the post-menopausal period?

Serous cystadenoma. **Explanation:** The correct answer is **Serous cystadenoma**. **Understanding the Concept:** In post-menopausal women, the most common ovarian tumors are of **surface epithelial origin**. Among these, **Serous tumors** are the most frequent. While the question asks for "malignancy," it is a high-yield point in NEET-PG that **Serous Cystadenoma** (the benign variant) is statistically the most common epithelial tumor overall in this age group. However, if the question specifically implies the most common *malignant* epithelial tumor, **Serous Cystadenocarcinoma** would be the specific subtype. In many standardized exams, "Serous tumor" is the intended takeaway for the most common pathology in the post-menopausal period. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Fibroma/Thecoma:** These are sex cord-stromal tumors. While they can occur in post-menopausal women (Fibromas are associated with Meigs Syndrome), they are significantly less common than surface epithelial tumors. * **Teratoma:** Mature cystic teratomas (Dermoid cysts) are the most common ovarian germ cell tumors, but they characteristically occur in the **reproductive age group** (20–40 years), not post-menopause. * **Mucinous tumor:** These are the second most common surface epithelial tumors. They are generally larger than serous tumors but occur less frequently. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most common ovarian tumor overall:** Serous Cystadenoma. * **Most common malignant ovarian tumor:** Serous Cystadenocarcinoma. * **Most common ovarian tumor in children/adolescents:** Germ cell tumors (specifically Teratoma). * **Psammoma bodies:** Microscopic finding characteristically seen in Serous tumors. * **CA-125:** The primary tumor marker used for monitoring epithelial ovarian cancers in post-menopausal women.

Q: A 62-year-old postmenopausal woman presents with a blood-tinged vaginal discharge. Her last menstrual period was 10 years ago. On bimanual pelvic examination, the uterus is normal in size, with no palpable adnexal masses. There are no cervical erosions or masses. Her body mass index is 33. She has a 30-year history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. An endometrial biopsy specimen is most likely to show which of the following?

Adenocarcinoma. **Explanation:** The clinical presentation is a classic case of **Endometrial Adenocarcinoma**, the most common gynecologic malignancy in postmenopausal women. **Why Adenocarcinoma is correct:** The patient presents with the hallmark symptom: **postmenopausal bleeding (PMB)**. In any woman over 45 with PMB, endometrial cancer must be ruled out. This patient possesses the "classic triad" of risk factors: **Obesity (BMI 33), Hypertension, and Diabetes Mellitus** (often referred to as the Corpus Uteri Cancer Syndrome). Obesity leads to increased peripheral conversion of androstenedione to estrone in adipose tissue, causing chronic "unopposed estrogen" stimulation of the endometrium, which leads to hyperplasia and eventually **Type 1 Endometrial Adenocarcinoma** (Endometrioid type). **Why the other options are incorrect:** * **Choriocarcinoma:** This is a gestational trophoblastic neoplasm. While it can cause bleeding, it typically follows a pregnancy (molar, ectopic, or term) and is rare in a 62-year-old woman 10 years post-menopause. * **Leiomyosarcoma:** These present as a rapidly enlarging uterus or a "fibroid" that grows after menopause. This patient’s uterus is normal in size. * **Malignant Mixed Mullerian Tumor (MMMT/Carcinosarcoma):** Though these occur in postmenopausal women, they usually present with a significantly enlarged uterus and often tissue protruding through the cervix. Adenocarcinoma is statistically far more common. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Gold Standard Investigation:** Endometrial Biopsy (Pipelle's biopsy) is the initial procedure of choice. * **TVUS Finding:** An endometrial thickness **>4 mm** in a postmenopausal woman requires biopsy. * **Most Common Histology:** Endometrioid Adenocarcinoma. * **Protective Factors:** Combined oral contraceptives, smoking (decreases estrogen, though not recommended), and multiparity.

Q: What is the first change observed on colposcopy in a precancerous lesion?

Punctation. **Explanation:** The progression of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) involves predictable architectural changes in the cervical epithelium and its underlying vasculature. **Why Punctation is the correct answer:** The earliest morphological change in a precancerous lesion is the upward growth of stromal papillae containing capillary loops toward the surface of the thickened epithelium. When viewed "end-on" through a colposcope, these vertical capillaries appear as a fine pattern of red dots against a paler background. This phenomenon is known as **Punctation**. It represents the initial vascular response to the metabolic demands of a developing lesion before more complex patterns emerge. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Acetowhite lesions (Option C):** While often the *most common* or *first visible* sign after applying acetic acid, acetowhitening is a chemical reaction (protein coagulation). In terms of structural/vascular changes, punctation is considered the primary architectural alteration. * **Mosaics (Option A):** This occurs later than punctation. It happens when the terminal capillaries surround "blocks" of epithelium rather than just poking through them. It indicates a more advanced stage of dysplasia. * **Cork-screw vessels (Option D):** These are "atypical vessels" characterized by irregular shapes and sudden changes in direction. They are a hallmark of **Invasive Carcinoma**, not just a precancerous lesion. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Sequence of changes:** Punctation → Mosaicism → Atypical vessels (Invasive). * **Reagent:** 3-5% Acetic acid is used to identify acetowhite areas (high nuclear-to-cytoplasmic ratio). * **Schiller’s Test:** Uses Lugol’s Iodine. Normal cells (rich in glycogen) turn mahogany brown; precancerous cells remain **unstained (Iodine negative)**. * **Gold Standard:** Colposcopy-directed biopsy is the definitive investigation for a suspicious Pap smear.

Q: A 30-year-old woman's Pap smear results are provided below. What is your next recommended approach?

Advise loop electrosurgical excision procedure. ***Advise loop electrosurgical excision procedure*** - **HSIL (CIN 2/3)** on Pap smear requires excisional treatment, and **LEEP** is the preferred first-line procedure for diagnosis and treatment. - LEEP provides complete **histopathological evaluation** to rule out **invasive carcinoma** and ensures adequate treatment of high-grade lesions. *Continue routine screening* - Routine screening is appropriate only for **normal cytology** or **ASCUS** with negative HPV testing. - **High-grade lesions (HSIL)** have significant **malignant potential** and require immediate intervention, not observation. *Hysterectomy* - Reserved for **invasive cervical cancer**, **recurrent CIN** after failed conservative treatment, or when fertility preservation is not desired. - **Primary hysterectomy** for CIN 2/3 is excessive and removes fertility potential unnecessarily in a 30-year-old woman. *Cryotherapy* - Suitable only for **small CIN 1** lesions or **CIN 2** lesions covering less than 2 quadrants with visible transformation zone. - **Cannot provide tissue sample** for histopathological confirmation and may be inadequate for extensive CIN 2/3 lesions.

Q: Which of the following indications usually warrants the institution of single-agent chemotherapy following evacuation of a hydatidiform mole?

A rise in hCG titers. In the management of Gestational Trophoblastic Disease (GTD), the primary goal after suction evacuation is the monitoring of serum β-hCG levels to detect malignant transformation into Gestational Trophoblastic Neoplasia (GTN). ### **Explanation of the Correct Answer** **Option A (A rise in hCG titers)** is a definitive FIGO criterion for diagnosing post-molar GTN. Specifically, a rise of **10% or greater** across three consecutive weekly titers (days 1, 7, and 14) indicates active trophoblastic proliferation. Once GTN is diagnosed, chemotherapy (usually single-agent Methotrexate or Actinomycin-D for low-risk disease) is mandatory to prevent local invasion and distant metastasis. ### **Analysis of Incorrect Options** * **Option B:** A plateau of hCG is indeed an indication for chemotherapy, but the duration must be for **at least 3 weeks** (4 values on days 1, 7, 14, and 21), not just 1 week. * **Option C:** This represents a normal physiological recovery. If hCG returns to normal, the patient is monitored but does not require chemotherapy. * **Option D:** The appearance of liver metastasis classifies the patient as **High-Risk GTN** (WHO Score ≥7). Such cases warrant **multi-agent chemotherapy** (e.g., EMA-CO regimen) rather than the single-agent therapy specified in the question. ### **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG** * **FIGO Criteria for GTN:** 1. hCG plateau for 4 values over 3 weeks. 2. hCG rise (≥10%) for 3 values over 2 weeks. 3. Persistence of hCG 6 months after evacuation. 4. Histological diagnosis of Choriocarcinoma. * **Investigation of Choice for Follow-up:** Serial quantitative serum β-hCG. * **Contraception:** Combined Oral Contraceptive Pills (COCs) are preferred after evacuation once hCG levels normalize; avoid IUCDs until hCG is undetectable due to the risk of perforation.

Q: What is the WHO prognostic score for high-risk gestational trophoblastic neoplasia (GTN)?

>= 7. **Explanation:** Gestational Trophoblastic Neoplasia (GTN) is staged using the **FIGO Staging and WHO Scoring System**. Unlike other cancers, GTN management is determined by a "Prognostic Risk Score" rather than just anatomical spread. This score (0-4 points per factor) evaluates variables such as age, antecedent pregnancy, interval from index pregnancy, pretreatment hCG levels, largest tumor size, site and number of metastases, and previous chemotherapy failure. * **Correct Answer (B):** A total score of **≥ 7** is classified as **High-Risk GTN**. These patients have a higher risk of developing resistance to single-agent chemotherapy and are therefore treated primarily with **multi-agent chemotherapy** (typically the EMA-CO regimen). * **Incorrect Options (A, C, D):** A score of **0–6** is classified as **Low-Risk GTN**, usually treated with single-agent chemotherapy (Methotrexate or Actinomycin-D). Scores of 10 or 15 do not represent the standard threshold for high-risk classification, though a score ≥ 13 is sometimes used to denote "ultra-high risk" in specialized centers. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** 1. **Low Risk (0-6):** Single-agent chemo (Methotrexate is the first choice). 2. **High Risk (≥ 7):** Multi-agent chemo (EMA-CO: Etoposide, Methotrexate, Actinomycin-D, Cyclophosphamide, Oncovin/Vincristine). 3. **Most Important Prognostic Factor:** The most significant factor in the scoring system is the **previous failure of chemotherapy**. 4. **Commonest Site of Metastasis:** The **Lungs** (80%), followed by the vagina (30%). 5. **Choriocarcinoma** is the most common histological type of GTN following a term pregnancy.

Question 1

What condition is characterized by a 'snow storm' appearance on ultrasound (IJSG)?

Accepted Answer

Hydatidiform mole

Answer

Invasive mole

Answer

Twin pregnancy

Answer

Ectopic pregnancy

Question 2

What is the chemotherapy regimen for dysgerminoma?

Accepted Answer

Cisplatin, etoposide, bleomycin

Answer

Cyclophosphamide, vincristine, prednisolone

Answer

Adriamycin, cyclophosphamide, cisplatin

Answer

Methotrexate, oncovin, procarbacine

Question 3

Following molar pregnancy evacuation, in which timeframe do post-treatment HCG levels typically normalize?

Accepted Answer

9 weeks

Answer

3 weeks

Answer

6 weeks

Answer

12 weeks

Question 4

What is the most common ovarian malignancy in the post-menopausal period?

Accepted Answer

Serous cystadenoma

Answer

Fibroma/thecoma

Answer

Teratoma

Answer

Mucinous tumor

Question 5

A 62-year-old postmenopausal woman presents with a blood-tinged vaginal discharge. Her last menstrual period was 10 years ago. On bimanual pelvic examination, the uterus is normal in size, with no palpable adnexal masses. There are no cervical erosions or masses. Her body mass index is 33. She has a 30-year history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. An endometrial biopsy specimen is most likely to show which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Adenocarcinoma

Answer

Choriocarcinoma

Answer

Leiomyosarcoma

Answer

Malignant mixed mullerian tumor

Question 6

What is the first change observed on colposcopy in a precancerous lesion?

Accepted Answer

Punctation

Answer

Mosaics

Answer

Acetowhite lesions

Answer

Cork-screw vessels

Question 7

A 30-year-old woman's Pap smear results are provided below. What is your next recommended approach?

Accepted Answer

Advise loop electrosurgical excision procedure

Answer

Continue routine screening

Answer

Hysterectomy

Answer

Cryotherapy

Question 8

A 53-year-old woman with an ovarian tumor presents with breathlessness and right-sided chest pain. The chest X-ray shows obliteration of the right costophrenic angle. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Pleurisy

Answer

Pericarditis

Answer

Myocardial infarction

Answer

Parapneumonic effusion

Question 9

Which of the following indications usually warrants the institution of single-agent chemotherapy following evacuation of a hydatidiform mole?

Accepted Answer

A rise in hCG titers

Answer

A plateau of hCG titers for 1 week

Answer

Return of hCG titer to normal at 6 weeks after evacuation

Answer

Appearance of liver metastasis

Question 10

What is the WHO prognostic score for high-risk gestational trophoblastic neoplasia (GTN)?

Accepted Answer

>= 7

Answer

>= 6

Answer

>= 10

Answer

>= 15

Gynecologic Oncology — MCQs

Gynecologic Oncology — MCQs

On this page

Practice by Chapter

Want unlimited practice?