Gynecologic Oncology Practice Questions

Q: A 35-year-old woman presents with postcoital bleeding and foul-smelling discharge. What is the most important investigation to arrive at a diagnosis?

Cervical biopsy. **Explanation:** The clinical presentation of **postcoital bleeding** and **foul-smelling discharge** in a 35-year-old woman is a classic "red flag" for **Cervical Cancer** until proven otherwise. In the context of a suspected cervical malignancy, the definitive diagnostic step is a **Cervical Biopsy**. * **Why Cervical Biopsy is correct:** Postcoital bleeding is the most specific clinical symptom of cervical cancer. While a Pap smear is a screening tool, a punch biopsy (directed by colposcopy if a lesion is not visible, or a direct wedge biopsy if a growth is present) provides the histopathological confirmation required for diagnosis and staging. * **Why other options are incorrect:** * **Endometrial aspiration, D&C, and Endometrial biopsy** are primary investigations for **Abnormal Uterine Bleeding (AUB)** or suspected **Endometrial Cancer**. These typically present as heavy menstrual bleeding (menorrhagia) or postmenopausal bleeding, rather than postcoital bleeding. * While cervical cancer can sometimes involve the endocervical canal, the symptoms described point directly to a cervical lesion rather than a primary uterine/endometrial pathology. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most common symptom of Cervical Cancer:** Postcoital bleeding. * **Most common histological type:** Squamous Cell Carcinoma (SCC). * **Screening vs. Diagnosis:** Pap smear/HPV DNA testing is for **screening**; Colposcopy-directed biopsy is the **gold standard for diagnosis**. * **Staging:** Cervical cancer is staged **clinically** (FIGO staging), though the 2018 revision now allows for imaging and pathological findings where available.

Q: A 32-year-old asymptomatic woman has a Pap's smear report of ASCUS. What are the possible management options, excluding one?

Repeat cytology at 3 years. **Explanation:** The management of **ASCUS (Atypical Squamous Cells of Undetermined Significance)** follows the ASCCP (American Society for Colposcopy and Cervical Pathology) guidelines. ASCUS is the most common abnormal Pap result, representing a borderline finding that requires further triage rather than immediate aggressive treatment or routine screening. **Why Option D is the Correct Answer (The Exception):** Routine screening (cytology every 3 years) is only appropriate for women with **normal** results. Once an abnormality like ASCUS is detected, the patient enters a "triage" or "surveillance" pathway. Extending the interval to 3 years is unsafe as it may miss a progressing CIN (Cervical Intraepithelial Neoplasia) lesion. **Analysis of Management Options (Incorrect Options):** * **A. High-risk HPV DNA testing:** This is the **preferred** management (Reflex HPV testing). If HPV is positive, the patient proceeds to colposcopy; if negative, she returns to routine screening. * **B. Repeat cytology at 1 year:** This is an acceptable alternative if HPV testing is unavailable. If the repeat Pap at 12 months is $\ge$ ASCUS, colposcopy is indicated. * **C. Colposcopy:** This is indicated if the reflex HPV test is positive or if the repeat cytology shows persistent abnormalities. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **ASCUS Triage:** "Reflex HPV testing" is the most cost-effective and efficient strategy. * **Age Factor:** In women aged 21–24, the preferred management for ASCUS is **repeat cytology at 12 months** (not HPV testing), as HPV prevalence is high but often transient in this age group. * **Pregnancy:** Management of ASCUS in pregnancy is the same as in non-pregnant women, though endocervical curettage (ECC) is strictly contraindicated.

Q: A 45-year-old female presents with postcoital bleeding. On per speculum examination, a friable mass is found in the cervix. What is the next step in management?

Punch biopsy. **Explanation:** The clinical presentation of postcoital bleeding associated with a visible, friable mass on the cervix is highly suspicious for **Cervical Carcinoma**. **Why Punch Biopsy is the correct answer:** In the presence of a **grossly visible lesion** or a suspicious growth, the gold standard and immediate next step is a **Punch Biopsy**. This provides a tissue diagnosis to confirm malignancy and determine the histological type. When a lesion is clinically obvious, screening or diagnostic aids like Pap smears or colposcopy are bypassed in favor of direct tissue sampling. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **A. Colposcopy directed biopsy:** Colposcopy is indicated when there is an abnormal Pap smear but **no visible growth**. It helps localize "occult" or microscopic lesions. Since a mass is already visible here, colposcopy is unnecessary and may delay diagnosis. * **B. 6-monthly Pap smear:** This is a screening/follow-up tool. Using it in the presence of a symptomatic mass is a clinical error, as it has a significant false-negative rate in invasive cancer due to necrosis and blood. * **C. Observation only:** This is inappropriate as it ignores a classic "red flag" symptom of malignancy, allowing the cancer to progress to a higher stage. **NEET-PG Clinical Pearls:** * **Rule of Thumb:** If you can see it, biopsy it. Never perform a Pap smear on a visible growth. * **Most common histological type:** Squamous cell carcinoma (80-85%). * **Staging:** Cervical cancer is now primarily **clinically staged** (FIGO), but the 2018 update allows for imaging and pathological findings to be incorporated where available. * **Postcoital bleeding** is the most common presenting symptom of cervical cancer in perimenopausal women.

Q: Acetic acid staining of the cervix shows the following findings:

Cervical polyp. ***Cervical polyp*** - **Cervical polyps** appear as **smooth, rounded, non-acetowhite lesions** on acetic acid staining, maintaining their normal pink/red color. - They are **benign growths** from the endocervical canal that do not turn white with acetic acid application, distinguishing them from dysplastic lesions. *Squamous dysplasia* - Shows **acetowhite changes** with well-defined borders after acetic acid application due to increased nuclear density. - Represents **precancerous changes** in squamous epithelium that would appear as distinct white lesions, not smooth polypoidal growths. *Cervical carcinoma in situ* - Exhibits **dense acetowhite areas** with **sharp, irregular borders** and possible **coarse mosaic patterns** on colposcopy. - Represents **high-grade dysplasia** (CIN 3) that turns intensely white with acetic acid, unlike the non-reactive appearance of polyps. *Cervical dysplasia* - Demonstrates **acetowhite epithelium** with varying degrees of whiteness depending on the grade of dysplasia (CIN 1-3). - Shows **abnormal vascular patterns** like punctation or mosaicism, contrasting with the smooth, vascular appearance of benign polyps.

Q: A 41-year-old woman is diagnosed with squamous cell carcinoma of the cervix and has right hydronephrosis evidenced by intravenous pyelogram (IVP). Which of the following statements regarding this patient's condition is most accurate?

Chemoradiation is the preferred treatment.. ### Explanation **1. Why the correct answer is right:** The presence of **hydronephrosis** in a patient with cervical cancer automatically classifies the disease as **Stage IIIB** according to the FIGO staging system (regardless of other physical findings). Stage IIIB represents locally advanced cervical cancer (LACC). The standard of care for LACC (Stages IIB through IVA) is **Concurrent Chemoradiation (CCRT)**, typically using Cisplatin-based chemotherapy alongside external beam radiation and brachytherapy. **2. Why the incorrect options are wrong:** * **Option A & D:** Surgical options like Radical Hysterectomy (Wertheim’s operation) are reserved for **early-stage disease** (Stage IA to IIA1). Once the disease involves the parametrium (IIB) or causes hydronephrosis (IIIB), surgery is no longer the primary treatment because it cannot ensure clear margins and significantly increases morbidity without improving survival compared to radiation. * **Option B:** This is factually incorrect. Approximately **80–90%** of cervical cancers are **Squamous Cell Carcinomas (SCC)**. Adenocarcinomas account for only about 10–20%, though their incidence is rising. **3. Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **FIGO Staging:** Cervical cancer is staged **clinically**. While the 2018 revision allows imaging (MRI/CT/PET) and pathology, the presence of hydronephrosis or a non-functioning kidney remains a hallmark of **Stage IIIB**. * **Most common cause of death:** Uremia due to bilateral ureteric obstruction (leading to post-renal renal failure). * **Triad of Stage IIIB:** Pelvic wall involvement, hydronephrosis/non-functioning kidney, and/or lower third of the vagina involvement. * **Drug of Choice:** Cisplatin is the most common radiosensitizer used in CCRT.

Q: Which of the following is not a predisposing factor for carcinoma of the cervix?

Single child birth. **Explanation:** Carcinoma of the cervix is primarily caused by persistent infection with High-Risk Human Papillomavirus (HPV), specifically types 16 and 18. The risk factors for cervical cancer are almost entirely related to the timing and frequency of exposure to this sexually transmitted virus. **Why "Single child birth" is the correct answer:** While pregnancy itself involves hormonal changes, a single childbirth is not a recognized risk factor. In fact, **multiparity** (having 3 or more full-term pregnancies) is the established risk factor. This is due to increased hormonal levels during repeated pregnancies, cervical trauma during multiple deliveries, and the associated immunosuppression, all of which facilitate HPV persistence and progression to malignancy. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Early coitus:** This is a major risk factor because the adolescent cervix has a large area of **ectopy** (columnar epithelium). The transformation zone is highly active and immature, making it more susceptible to HPV integration and oncogenic transformation. * **Early marriage & Early childbearing:** These are surrogate markers for early onset of sexual activity. Early marriage often implies early and frequent coitus, increasing the duration of exposure to HPV during the vulnerable years of cervical development. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Most common cause:** HPV 16 (Squamous cell ca) and HPV 18 (Adenocarcinoma). * **The "Protective" Factor:** Nuns (virgins) have the lowest risk of cervical cancer. * **Other Risk Factors:** Multiple sexual partners, smoking (doubles the risk), long-term Oral Contraceptive Pill (OCP) use (>5 years), and low socioeconomic status. * **Screening:** The transformation zone is the most common site for cervical cancer; hence, it is the target area for Pap smears.

Q: Placental alkaline phosphatase is a marker of which of the following?

Dysgerminoma. **Explanation:** **Dysgerminoma** is the most common malignant germ cell tumor of the ovary, occurring primarily in young women. It is the female counterpart of the testicular seminoma. **Placental Alkaline Phosphatase (PLAP)** is a highly specific and sensitive cell-membrane marker for dysgerminoma. Other characteristic markers for this tumor include **LDH** (Lactate Dehydrogenase) and occasionally low levels of hCG. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Theca cell tumor:** These are sex cord-stromal tumors that are typically benign and often estrogen-producing. They do not express PLAP; their markers are more related to hormonal output (Inhibin is a more common marker for sex cord tumors like Granulosa cell tumors). * **Teratoma:** Mature teratomas usually do not have specific serum markers. Immature teratomas are associated with **AFP** (Alpha-fetoprotein), not PLAP. * **Choriocarcinoma:** This is a highly malignant gestational trophoblastic neoplasm or germ cell tumor characterized by the secretion of very high levels of **beta-hCG**. PLAP is not a diagnostic marker for this condition. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Dysgerminoma Trio:** The most common markers tested are **PLAP** (most specific), **LDH** (used for monitoring), and **c-KIT (CD117)**. * **Radiosensitivity:** Dysgerminoma is the most radiosensitive tumor of the ovary, though fertility-sparing surgery and chemotherapy are now preferred. * **Associated Conditions:** It is frequently associated with **gonadal dysgenesis** (e.g., Swyer syndrome, Turner syndrome). * **Fried-egg appearance:** Histologically, it shows large, clear cells with central nuclei and fibrous stroma infiltrated by lymphocytes.

Q: What is the primary treatment for a lutein cyst associated with a hydatidiform mole?

Suction evacuation. **Explanation:** The correct answer is **C. Suction evacuation**. **Medical Concept:** Theca lutein cysts are functional ovarian cysts that develop due to hypersensitivity or excessively high levels of **hCG (human Chorionic Gonadotropin)**, which shares an alpha subunit with LH. In cases of a hydatidiform mole, the massive proliferation of trophoblastic tissue leads to pathologically high hCG levels, causing bilateral ovarian enlargement. The primary treatment strategy is to **remove the source of the hCG**. Once the molar pregnancy is managed via **suction evacuation**, the stimulus for the cysts is removed. Consequently, the theca lutein cysts undergo spontaneous regression, usually within 8–12 weeks post-evacuation. **Why other options are incorrect:** * **A & B (Ovarian cystectomy/Ovariectomy):** Surgical removal of the cyst or the ovary is contraindicated. These cysts are benign, physiological responses to hormonal stimulation and are not neoplastic. Surgery increases the risk of hemorrhage and unnecessary loss of ovarian reserve. * **D (Ovariotomy):** This refers to an incision into the ovary. It is unnecessary and carries a high risk of bleeding due to the increased vascularity of the ovaries in molar pregnancies. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Appearance:** Theca lutein cysts are typically **bilateral**, multicystic, and can reach sizes >10 cm ("soap bubble" appearance on USG). * **Management:** Always **conservative**. Surgery is only indicated in rare complications like torsion or rupture with internal hemorrhage. * **Association:** Besides molar pregnancy, they are seen in multiple gestations, Rh isoimmunization, and Ovulation Induction (OHSS). * **Complication:** If they persist after hCG levels become undetectable, consider an alternative diagnosis like a true ovarian neoplasm.

Q: Which of the following is associated with BRCA mutation carrier status?

High grade pelvic serous carcinoma. **Explanation:** **Correct Answer: B. High grade pelvic serous carcinoma** **Medical Concept:** BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations are primarily associated with the **High-Grade Serous Carcinoma (HGSC)** pathway. These mutations involve defects in homologous recombination DNA repair. Most "ovarian" cancers in BRCA carriers actually originate from the fimbrial end of the fallopian tube as **Serous Tubal Intraepithelial Carcinoma (STIC)**, which then spreads to the ovary and peritoneum. Therefore, the term "High-grade pelvic serous carcinoma" encompasses these etiologies. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **A. Mucinous borderline ovarian tumor:** These are typically associated with KRAS mutations and are **not** linked to BRCA. In fact, mucinous and germ cell tumors are rarely seen in BRCA carriers. * **C. Endometrioid ovarian cancer:** While some cases are associated with Lynch Syndrome (HNPCC), they are not the classic presentation for BRCA mutations. Endometrioid tumors often arise from endometriosis (ARID1A mutations). * **D. Sertoli-Leydig ovarian tumor:** These are sex cord-stromal tumors often associated with **DICER1** mutations, not BRCA. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **BRCA1** carries a higher lifetime risk of ovarian cancer (approx. 40-50%) compared to **BRCA2** (approx. 15-25%). * **Prophylactic Surgery:** Risk-reducing salpingo-oophorectomy (RRSO) is recommended by age 35–40 for BRCA1 and 40–45 for BRCA2. * **OCPs:** Combined oral contraceptives are **protective** and reduce the risk of ovarian cancer in BRCA carriers. * **Treatment:** BRCA-mutated tumors are highly sensitive to platinum-based chemotherapy and **PARP inhibitors** (e.g., Olaparib).

Question 1

A 35-year-old woman presents with postcoital bleeding and foul-smelling discharge. What is the most important investigation to arrive at a diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Cervical biopsy

Answer

Endometrial aspiration

Answer

Dilatation and curettage

Answer

Endometrial biopsy

Question 2

A 32-year-old asymptomatic woman has a Pap's smear report of ASCUS. What are the possible management options, excluding one?

Accepted Answer

Repeat cytology at 3 years

Answer

High-risk HPV DNA testing

Answer

Repeat cytology at 1 year

Answer

Colposcopy

Question 3

A 45-year-old female presents with postcoital bleeding. On per speculum examination, a friable mass is found in the cervix. What is the next step in management?

Accepted Answer

Punch biopsy

Answer

Colposcopy directed biopsy

Answer

6-monthly Pap smear

Answer

Observation only

Question 4

Acetic acid staining of the cervix shows the following findings:

Accepted Answer

Cervical polyp

Answer

Squamous dysplasia

Answer

Cervical carcinoma in situ

Answer

Cervical dysplasia

Question 5

A 41-year-old woman is diagnosed with squamous cell carcinoma of the cervix and has right hydronephrosis evidenced by intravenous pyelogram (IVP). Which of the following statements regarding this patient's condition is most accurate?

Accepted Answer

Chemoradiation is the preferred treatment.

Answer

Surgical excision is the best treatment for this patient.

Answer

The majority of cervical cancers are of adenomatous cell type.

Answer

Radical hysterectomy is an option in the therapy of this patient.

Question 6

Which of the following is not a predisposing factor for carcinoma of the cervix?

Accepted Answer

Single child birth

Answer

Early coitus

Answer

Early childbearing

Answer

Early marriage

Question 7

Placental alkaline phosphatase is a marker of which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Dysgerminoma

Answer

Theca cell tumor

Answer

Teratoma

Answer

Choriocarcinoma

Question 8

What is the primary treatment for a lutein cyst associated with a hydatidiform mole?

Accepted Answer

Suction evacuation

Answer

Ovarian cystectomy

Answer

Ovariectomy

Answer

Ovariotomy

Question 9

Which of the following is associated with BRCA mutation carrier status?

Accepted Answer

High grade pelvic serous carcinoma

Answer

Mucinous borderline ovarian tumor

Answer

Endometrioid ovarian cancer

Answer

Sertoli-Leydig ovarian tumor

Question 10

Which of the following can cause endometrial cancer?

Accepted Answer

Metropathia hemorrhagica

Answer

Gynandroblastoma

Answer

Dysgerminoma

Answer

Teratoma

Gynecologic Oncology — MCQs

Gynecologic Oncology — MCQs

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