Fertility and Infertility Practice Questions

Q: What is the maximum storage duration for preserved semen intended for artificial insemination?

Ten years. **Explanation:** The correct answer is **Ten years (Option D)**. This duration is governed by the **Assisted Reproductive Technology (Regulation) Act, 2021** in India. According to the legal and ethical guidelines for ART clinics, semen (and other gametes) can be cryopreserved for a maximum period of ten years. After this period, the samples must be destroyed or used for research purposes with specific consent, as prolonged storage raises concerns regarding genetic stability and the legal complexities of inheritance and lineage. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Options A & B (One and Two years):** These durations are too short for clinical utility. Many couples require longer intervals between pregnancies or may delay insemination due to medical treatments (e.g., chemotherapy), making short-term storage impractical. * **Option C (Five years):** While five years was previously discussed in older guidelines as a review point, the current statutory limit under the ART Act is strictly ten years for gametes. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Cryoprotectant:** Glycerol (10%) is the most commonly used agent to prevent ice crystal formation during the freezing of semen. * **Storage Temperature:** Semen is stored in liquid nitrogen at **-196°C**. * **Post-Mortem Sperm Retrieval (PMSR):** Sperm can be retrieved from a cadaver up to **24–36 hours** after death, but legal consent from the spouse is mandatory. * **Legal Age for Donors:** Under the ART Act, a semen donor must be between **21 and 55 years** of age.

Q: A patient's semen analysis reveals normal semen volume and the presence of fructose. Where is the likely site of a block if the patient has azoospermia?

Above the level of seminal vesicles. **Explanation:** The presence of **fructose** in the semen is the key diagnostic marker in this case. Fructose is produced and secreted exclusively by the **seminal vesicles**. 1. **Why Option C is Correct:** If the semen analysis shows azoospermia (absence of sperm) but contains fructose and has a normal volume, it indicates that the seminal vesicles are functioning and their ducts are patent. Therefore, the obstruction must be located **above (proximal to)** the level where the seminal vesicle ducts join the vas deferens to form the ejaculatory ducts. Common sites include the epididymis or the proximal vas deferens. 2. **Why Incorrect Options are Wrong:** * **Option B (Below the level of seminal vesicles):** An obstruction at the level of the ejaculatory ducts or the prostate would block the secretions of the seminal vesicles. This would result in **fructose-negative** semen, low semen volume (<1.5 ml), and acidic pH. * **Option A (Testicular):** While testicular failure causes azoospermia, the question specifically asks for the "site of a block" (obstructive azoospermia). Testicular causes are typically non-obstructive. * **Option D (Pituitary):** Pituitary failure leads to hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. While this causes azoospermia, it is a hormonal issue, not a physical "block" in the ductal system. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Fructose Test:** Used to differentiate between obstructive causes of azoospermia. * **Congenital Bilateral Absence of Vas Deferens (CBAVD):** Often associated with Cystic Fibrosis (CFTR mutation); presents with low volume, acidic, fructose-negative semen because the seminal vesicles are also typically absent or atrophic. * **Normal Semen pH:** 7.2–8.0 (Alkaline). If pH is acidic (<7.0) and fructose is absent, suspect ejaculatory duct obstruction.

Q: What is the optimal timing for an endometrial biopsy in the investigation of infertility?

Just before the expected date of the next menstruation. **Explanation:** The primary objective of an endometrial biopsy in infertility workup is to assess **luteal phase adequacy** and confirm **ovulation**. **Why Option C is Correct:** The biopsy is ideally performed during the **late secretory phase**, specifically 2–3 days before the expected onset of menstruation (typically days 24–26 of a 28-day cycle). At this stage, the endometrium has been exposed to progesterone from the corpus luteum for the maximum duration. This allows the pathologist to "date" the endometrium using **Noyes’ criteria**. If the histological age lags behind the chronological cycle day by more than 2 days, it indicates a Luteal Phase Defect (LPD), which can be a cause of infertility or recurrent miscarriage. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Option A & B:** During or shortly after menstruation, the endometrium is either shedding or in the early proliferative phase. These stages do not reflect the progesterone influence required to confirm ovulation. * **Option D:** The 15th day is the early secretory phase (just after ovulation). The characteristic morphological changes required for accurate dating are not yet fully developed. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Gold Standard:** While biopsy was historically the gold standard for LPD, **Mid-luteal serum progesterone levels** (measured on Day 21) are now more commonly used as a non-invasive alternative. A level >3 ng/ml confirms ovulation; >10 ng/ml suggests adequate luteal function. * **Site of Biopsy:** Usually taken from the **fundus** (anterior or posterior wall) as this area is most responsive to hormonal changes. * **Pre-procedure:** Always rule out pregnancy (via a urine pregnancy test) before performing a late-luteal biopsy to avoid disrupting a potential early implantation.

Q: An infertile couple enquires about modalities of assisted reproduction. Which of the following is not an assisted reproductive technology?

Artificial insemination. The distinction between Assisted Reproductive Technology (ART) and other fertility treatments is a high-yield concept for NEET-PG. ### **Explanation** According to the **CDC and WHO definitions**, **Assisted Reproductive Technology (ART)** includes all fertility treatments in which **both eggs and embryos are handled outside the body**. **Why Artificial Insemination (AI/IUI) is the correct answer:** Artificial Insemination, such as Intrauterine Insemination (IUI), involves the deposition of processed sperm into the female reproductive tract. Since the **oocytes are not handled** and fertilization occurs **in vivo** (inside the fallopian tube), it does not meet the technical definition of ART. **Why the other options are incorrect:** * **IVF (In-Vitro Fertilization):** The gold standard of ART where eggs are extracted, fertilized by sperm in a lab, and the resulting embryo is transferred to the uterus. * **GIFT (Gamete Intrafallopian Transfer):** Eggs and sperm are collected and immediately placed into the fallopian tube. Although fertilization is in vivo, it is considered ART because the oocytes are handled outside the body. * **ZIFT (Zygote Intrafallopian Transfer):** A hybrid of IVF and GIFT where fertilization happens in the lab, and the zygote is transferred into the fallopian tube. ### **High-Yield Clinical Pearls** * **Success Rates:** IVF generally has higher success rates per cycle compared to IUI. * **ICSI (Intracytoplasmic Sperm Injection):** The most common ART procedure used for **male factor infertility** (low sperm count/motility). * **OHSS (Ovarian Hyperstimulation Syndrome):** The most serious complication associated with the controlled ovarian stimulation used in ART. * **Legal Note:** In India, the **ART (Regulation) Act, 2021** provides the legal framework for these procedures, distinguishing between ART banks and clinics.

Q: What is the probability of a normally fertile couple conceiving a child within one menstrual cycle?

25%. **Explanation:** The probability of a normally fertile couple conceiving in a single menstrual cycle is known as **Fecundability**. For a healthy couple in their peak reproductive years (early 20s) having regular unprotected intercourse, the fecundability rate is approximately **20–25%**. While humans are relatively inefficient breeders compared to other mammals, the cumulative probability of conception increases over time: about 70% conceive within 6 months, 85% within 12 months, and 95% by 24 months. **Analysis of Options:** * **Option A (80%):** This is incorrect for a single cycle. However, 80–85% is the cumulative pregnancy rate after **one year** of regular unprotected intercourse. * **Option B (25%):** **Correct.** This represents the maximum biological potential for conception per cycle (fecundability). * **Option C (60%):** This is incorrect for a single cycle. Approximately 60–70% of couples will have conceived by the end of **six months**. * **Option D (45%):** This value does not correspond to standard clinical milestones in fertility statistics. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Fecundability:** Probability of pregnancy in one cycle (~25%). * **Fecundity:** The ability to achieve a live birth within one menstrual cycle. * **Infertility Definition:** Failure to conceive after **12 months** of regular unprotected intercourse (or 6 months if the female partner is >35 years). * **Peak Fertility:** Occurs during the "fertile window," which includes the 5 days preceding ovulation and the day of ovulation itself. * **Age Factor:** Fecundability declines significantly after age 35 due to decreased oocyte quantity and quality.

Q: A 30-year-old lady is examined for infertility. Hysterosalpingography reveals 'bead-like' fallopian tubes and clubbing of the ampulla. What is the most likely cause?

Mycobacterium tuberculosis. **Explanation:** The clinical presentation and hysterosalpingography (HSG) findings are classic for **Genital Tuberculosis (GTB)**. In India and other developing nations, Mycobacterium tuberculosis is a leading cause of tubal factor infertility. **1. Why Mycobacterium tuberculosis is correct:** Genital TB typically spreads hematogenously to the fallopian tubes (affected in 90-100% of cases). The chronic granulomatous inflammation leads to specific radiological signs on HSG: * **Beaded appearance:** Caused by multiple strictures and scarring along the tube. * **Clubbing of the ampulla:** Resulting from fimbrial phimosis and distal occlusion. * **Other high-yield HSG signs:** "Lead pipe" tubes (rigid tubes), "Tobacco pouch" appearance, and **Asherman’s syndrome** (due to endometrial involvement). **2. Why other options are incorrect:** * **Chlamydia trachomatis & Neisseria gonorrhoeae:** These are the most common causes of Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID) worldwide. While they cause tubal blockages and hydrosalpinx, they typically result in thin-walled, dilated tubes rather than the characteristic "beaded" or "calcified" appearance seen in TB. * **Mycoplasma species:** These are associated with bacterial vaginosis and subacute PID but rarely cause the extensive structural tubal destruction or specific beaded morphology associated with tuberculosis. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Gold Standard Diagnosis for GTB:** Endometrial biopsy for histopathology (granulomas) and TB-PCR/Culture (taken in the pre-menstrual phase). * **Most common site of Genital TB:** Fallopian tube (1st), followed by Endometrium (2nd). * **Schick’s Sign:** A radiological sign in GTB where there is calcification of pelvic lymph nodes or the fallopian tubes. * **Prognosis:** Even after successful Antitubercular Therapy (ATT), the conception rate remains low due to permanent tubal damage and endometrial scarring.

Q: A 32-year-old male presents at an infertility clinic with a history of azoospermia on semen analysis. His serum FSH is increased and testosterone levels are decreased. What is the most likely site of the problem in this case?

Testicular. **Explanation:** The clinical presentation of **azoospermia** associated with **increased FSH** and **decreased testosterone** indicates **Primary Hypogonadism (Hypergonadotropic Hypogonadism)**. **1. Why Testicular is correct:** In this case, the pathology lies within the testes (the primary organ). When the testes fail to produce testosterone (Leydig cell dysfunction) and inhibin (Sertoli cell dysfunction), the negative feedback mechanism to the brain is lost. Consequently, the pituitary gland secretes compensatory high levels of FSH and LH to stimulate the failing gonads. This hormonal profile (High FSH/LH, Low Testosterone) is a hallmark of primary testicular failure, such as in Klinefelter syndrome or post-mumps orchitis. **2. Why other options are incorrect:** * **Hypothalamus (C) and Pituitary (D):** These represent **Secondary Hypogonadism (Hypogonadotropic Hypogonadism)**. If the defect were at the level of the brain, the FSH and LH would be low or inappropriately normal in the presence of low testosterone. * **Post-testicular (B):** This refers to obstructive azoospermia (e.g., Congenital Absence of Vas Deferens). In these cases, the testicular production of hormones is intact; therefore, FSH, LH, and testosterone levels remain **normal**. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **FSH** is the most sensitive marker for spermatogenesis; elevated FSH usually indicates significant germ cell depletion. * **Normal FSH + Azoospermia** = Likely Obstructive (Post-testicular) cause. * **High FSH + Azoospermia** = Likely Non-obstructive (Testicular) cause. * **Low FSH + Azoospermia** = Pre-testicular (Hypothalamic/Pituitary) cause.

Q: A post-coital test shows non-motile sperms in the cervical smear and motile sperms from the posterior fornix. What does this suggest?

Immunological defect. **Explanation:** The **Post-Coital Test (PCT)**, or Sims-Huhner test, evaluates the interaction between the cervical mucus and spermatozoa. **Why Option B is Correct:** The presence of motile sperms in the posterior fornix confirms that ejaculation was successful and the semen quality is adequate. However, the finding of **non-motile (or shaking/vibratory) sperms** specifically within the cervical mucus suggests a "hostile" environment. This is the classic presentation of an **immunological defect**, where antisperm antibodies (ASABs) are present in the cervical mucus. These antibodies bind to the sperm, causing them to lose forward progression or become immobilized upon contact with the mucus (the "shaking phenomenon"). **Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **A. Faulty coital practice:** If coitus were faulty, no sperm would be found in either the posterior fornix or the cervical smear. * **C. Hypospadias:** This condition leads to failure of deposition of semen at the external os; typically, the PCT would show an absence of sperm in the cervical canal. * **D. Azoospermia:** This refers to the total absence of sperm in the ejaculate. The presence of motile sperm in the posterior fornix directly rules this out. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Timing:** PCT must be performed during the **pre-ovulatory phase** (when estrogen is high and mucus is thin/Spinnbarkeit is high). * **Normal Result:** >5–10 motile sperm per high-power field (HPF) with good forward progression. * **Clinical Utility:** The PCT has largely been replaced by more reliable tests like the **Sperm-Cervical Mucus Contact (SCMC) test** and direct antibody testing (Immunobead assay), as it has high inter-observer variability and poor predictive value for pregnancy.

Q: In which of the following conditions is in-vitro fertilisation (IVF) indicated in a 28-year-old female?

Tubal block. **Explanation:** **Tubal block** is the classic and most definitive indication for **In-Vitro Fertilization (IVF)**. In cases of bilateral tubal obstruction (e.g., due to Pelvic Inflammatory Disease or previous surgery), the natural site of fertilization—the ampulla of the fallopian tube—is inaccessible. IVF bypasses the tubes entirely by retrieving oocytes directly from the ovaries, fertilizing them in a lab, and transferring the embryo into the uterus. **Analysis of Other Options:** * **Anovulatory cycles (Option A):** The first-line treatment is **Ovulation Induction** using drugs like Clomiphene Citrate or Letrozole. IVF is reserved only if medical induction fails. * **Azoospermia (Option C):** While IVF can be used, the specific procedure required for male factor infertility is **ICSI (Intracytoplasmic Sperm Injection)**. Furthermore, if it is obstructive azoospermia, surgical sperm retrieval is needed; if non-obstructive, donor insemination may be the first step. * **Uterine anomalies (Option D):** Conditions like a septate uterus are managed surgically (Hysteroscopic metroplasty). IVF does not bypass or fix a structural uterine defect that prevents implantation or causes miscarriage. **High-Yield NEET-PG Pearls:** * **Absolute Indication for IVF:** Bilateral tubal block. * **First-line for PCOD/Anovulation:** Letrozole (Aromatase inhibitor). * **Indication for ICSI:** Severe male factor infertility (oligoasthenoteratozoospermia) or failed fertilization in previous IVF cycles. * **Success Rate:** In a 28-year-old (young age), the prognosis for IVF is generally favorable, as ovarian reserve and oocyte quality are typically high.

Question 1

What is the maximum storage duration for preserved semen intended for artificial insemination?

Accepted Answer

Ten years

Answer

One year

Answer

Two years

Answer

Five years

Question 2

A patient's semen analysis reveals normal semen volume and the presence of fructose. Where is the likely site of a block if the patient has azoospermia?

Accepted Answer

Above the level of seminal vesicles

Answer

Testicular

Answer

Below the level of seminal vesicles

Answer

Pituitary

Question 3

Infertility in women with endometriosis is most likely due to which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Tubal obstruction

Answer

Ovulatory dysfunction

Answer

Defect in implantation

Answer

Anti-sperm antibodies

Question 4

What is the optimal timing for an endometrial biopsy in the investigation of infertility?

Accepted Answer

Just before the expected date of the next menstruation

Answer

The first day of menstruation

Answer

One week after the onset of menstruation

Answer

The 15th day after the onset of menstruation

Question 5

An infertile couple enquires about modalities of assisted reproduction. Which of the following is not an assisted reproductive technology?

Accepted Answer

Artificial insemination

Answer

IVF

Answer

GIFT

Answer

ZIFT

Question 6

What is the probability of a normally fertile couple conceiving a child within one menstrual cycle?

Accepted Answer

25%

Answer

80%

Answer

60%

Answer

45%

Question 7

A 30-year-old lady is examined for infertility. Hysterosalpingography reveals 'bead-like' fallopian tubes and clubbing of the ampulla. What is the most likely cause?

Accepted Answer

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Answer

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Answer

Mycoplasma species

Answer

Chlamydia trachomatis

Question 8

A 32-year-old male presents at an infertility clinic with a history of azoospermia on semen analysis. His serum FSH is increased and testosterone levels are decreased. What is the most likely site of the problem in this case?

Accepted Answer

Testicular

Answer

Post-testicular

Answer

Hypothalamus

Answer

Pituitary

Question 9

A post-coital test shows non-motile sperms in the cervical smear and motile sperms from the posterior fornix. What does this suggest?

Accepted Answer

Immunological defect

Answer

Faulty coital practice

Answer

Hypospadias

Answer

Azoospermia

Question 10

In which of the following conditions is in-vitro fertilisation (IVF) indicated in a 28-year-old female?

Accepted Answer

Tubal block

Answer

Anovulatory cycles

Answer

Azoospermia

Answer

Uterine anomalies

Fertility and Infertility — MCQs

Fertility and Infertility — MCQs

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