Cosmetic Dermatology Practice Questions

Q: A patient treated with Q-switched Nd:YAG laser for nevus of Ota develops paradoxical darkening after 4 weeks. What is the most likely explanation for this phenomenon?

Increased melanogenesis due to suboptimal fluence. ***Increased melanogenesis due to suboptimal fluence*** - Paradoxical darkening in **nevus of Ota** during **Q-switched Nd:YAG** therapy often results from **suboptimal fluence**, which triggers reactive **melanogenesis** instead of destroying the target cells. - This occurs when the energy delivered is sufficient to stimulate **dermal melanocytes** but remains below the threshold required for **selective photothermolysis** and cell destruction. *Delayed clearance in deeper dermal melanocytes* - Delayed clearance typically results in a slow resolution of the lesion rather than an actual **increase in pigmentation** or darkening. - The darkening suggests an active production of **melanin** rather than a passive failure of the lymphatic system to clear debris. *Post-inflammatory hyperpigmentation due to epidermal injury* - **Post-inflammatory hyperpigmentation (PIH)** usually presents as a more generalized or superficial brownish tan following **epidermal damage**. - While common in darker skin types, the term "paradoxical darkening" in the context of dermal lesions specifically refers to the reactive stimulation of **dermal melanocytes**. *Conversion to melanoma* - There is no clinical or histopathological evidence that **Q-switched lasers** induce **malignant transformation** or conversion of a benign nevus to **melanoma**. - While **nevus of Ota** has a small baseline risk of ocular or CNS melanoma, laser-induced darkening is a transient physiological response, not a neoplastic change.

Q: A 28-year-old patient undergoes 70% glycolic acid peel for acne scars. Two hours post-procedure, he develops severe burning and erythema. What is the most appropriate immediate management?

Apply cold compresses and emollient. ***Apply cold compresses and emollient*** - Severe burning and erythema two hours post-procedure are managed with **cold compresses** to soothe inflammation and **bland emollients** to restore the skin barrier. - At this stage, the chemical agent has already been processed; management focuses on **symptomatic relief** and preventing post-inflammatory hyperpigmentation. *Apply topical steroid immediately* - Topical steroids are generally avoided immediately after a chemical peel as they may **interfere with the natural healing process** and re-epithelialization. - They are typically reserved for persistent, **prolonged erythema** that does not subside with standard post-peel care. *Start oral corticosteroids* - Systemic steroids are disproportionate for post-peel erythema and are rarely indicated unless there is a severe **systemic allergic reaction**. - Routine management of peel complications involves **local topical therapies** rather than systemic immunosuppression. *Neutralize with sodium bicarbonate solution* - Neutralization with **sodium bicarbonate** must be performed **intra-procedure** once the desired clinical endpoint (like frosting or erythema) is reached. - Two hours post-procedure is **too late** for neutralization as the acid has already been neutralized or absorbed, making this intervention ineffective.

Q: A 35-year-old woman desires correction of nasolabial folds. She has a history of herpes simplex labialis. Which dermal filler should be avoided?

Polymethylmethacrylate. ***Polymethylmethacrylate*** - **Polymethylmethacrylate (PMMA)** is a **permanent dermal filler** that carries a higher risk of **granuloma formation**, particularly in patients with recurrent viral infections like **herpes simplex labialis**. - Injecting permanent fillers into areas of high mobility like the **nasolabial folds** in patients with active or recurrent infections can lead to chronic **inflammatory complications** and reactivation of the virus. *Calcium hydroxylapatite* - This is a **semi-permanent filler** often used for deep facial folds but is not specifically contraindicated based solely on a **herpes history**, provided prophylactic antivirals are used. - It acts as a **biostimulator** and is generally safe, though it cannot be easily reversed if a complication occurs compared to hyaluronic acid. *Hyaluronic acid* - **Hyaluronic acid (HA)** is the preferred choice for this patient because it is **reversible** using the enzyme **hyaluronidase** if a flare-up or complication occurs. - While any filler can trigger a **herpes flare**, HA has a lower profile for high-grade inflammatory reactions and is considered the **gold standard** for nasolabial folds. *Poly-L-lactic acid* - This is a **biodegradable, synthetic polymer** that stimulates collagen production over time rather than providing immediate volume. - It is generally used for global facial volumization rather than targeted **nasolabial fold** correction and does not carry the specific permanent risk profile of **PMMA**.

Question 1

A cosmetic dermatologist plans to introduce microneedling radiofrequency for acne scars. Which parameter combination would provide optimal collagen remodeling with minimal risk of thermal injury in Fitzpatrick type IV skin?

Accepted Answer

Needle depth 1.5-2 mm, temperature 60-65°C, pulse duration 100-200 ms

Answer

Needle depth 3.5 mm, temperature 70°C, pulse duration 1000 ms

Answer

Needle depth 4 mm, temperature 75°C, pulse duration 500 ms

Answer

Needle depth 0.5 mm, temperature 55°C, pulse duration 50 ms

Question 2

A patient treated with Q-switched Nd:YAG laser for nevus of Ota develops paradoxical darkening after 4 weeks. What is the most likely explanation for this phenomenon?

Accepted Answer

Increased melanogenesis due to suboptimal fluence

Answer

Delayed clearance in deeper dermal melanocytes

Answer

Post-inflammatory hyperpigmentation due to epidermal injury

Answer

Conversion to melanoma

Question 3

A 42-year-old woman develops sudden onset vision loss in one eye 2 hours after hyaluronic acid filler injection in the glabella. Fundoscopy shows retinal whitening. What is the underlying pathophysiology?

Accepted Answer

Retrograde embolization via angular artery to ophthalmic artery

Answer

Compression of supraorbital nerve

Answer

Direct traumatic optic nerve injury

Answer

Allergic reaction causing optic neuritis

Question 4

A 28-year-old patient undergoes 70% glycolic acid peel for acne scars. Two hours post-procedure, he develops severe burning and erythema. What is the most appropriate immediate management?

Accepted Answer

Apply cold compresses and emollient

Answer

Apply topical steroid immediately

Answer

Start oral corticosteroids

Answer

Neutralize with sodium bicarbonate solution

Question 5

A 35-year-old woman desires correction of nasolabial folds. She has a history of herpes simplex labialis. Which dermal filler should be avoided?

Accepted Answer

Polymethylmethacrylate

Answer

Calcium hydroxylapatite

Answer

Hyaluronic acid

Answer

Poly-L-lactic acid

Cosmetic Dermatology — MCQs

Cosmetic Dermatology — MCQs

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