NEET-PG 2022 Practice Questions

Q: STEPwise approach to surveillance for Non-Communicable diseases step 2 is

Physical measurement. ***Physical measurement*** - The **STEPwise approach** to NCD surveillance involves three steps, with Step 2 specifically focusing on **physical measurements**. - This step includes measurements like **blood pressure**, BMI, weight, height, and waist circumference, which provide crucial data on NCD risk factors. *Biochemical Measurement* - This is typically **Step 3** in the WHO STEPwise approach, focusing on biological measurements from blood or urine samples. - Examples include **blood glucose**, cholesterol levels, and other biomarkers. *Behavioral measurement* - This corresponds to **Step 1** of the WHO STEPwise approach, which involves self-reported data on lifestyle factors. - It covers aspects like **diet**, physical activity, and tobacco/alcohol consumption. *Emotional Assessment* - While emotional and mental health are relevant to overall well-being, **emotional assessment** is not a standard, distinct step in the core WHO STEPwise approach for NCD surveillance. - The STEPs focus on behavioral, physical, and biochemical indicators of NCD risk.

Q: A 22-year-old woman presents with diffuse hair loss for 1 month. She had a past history of enteric fever 4 months ago. What is the likely cause?

Telogen effluvium. ***Telogen effluvium*** - **Telogen effluvium** is characterized by diffuse hair shedding, often occurring 2-4 months after a significant physiological or psychological stressor, such as **enteric fever**. - The stress prematurely shifts a large number of hair follicles from the **anagen (growth)** phase into the **telogen (resting)** phase, leading to synchronized shedding. *Androgenic alopecia* - This condition presents as a gradual, patterned hair loss, typically characterized by **receding hairline** and thinning at the crown in men. - In women, it often appears as **diffuse thinning** over the crown, but it's not usually acute or triggered by an infection in the manner described. *Alopecia areata* - **Alopecia areata** is an autoimmune condition causing **sudden, well-demarcated patches of hair loss**, not diffuse shedding. - It is frequently associated with other autoimmune diseases, and the hair loss pattern is distinct from the patient's presentation. *Anagen effluvium* - **Anagen effluvium** causes rapid, diffuse hair loss during the **anagen (growth)** phase, often triggered by chemotherapy or radiation. - The onset is typically much faster (days to weeks) after the trigger, unlike the delayed onset seen in this case.

Q: Pitting of nails is seen in:

Psoriasis and Alopecia areata. ***Psoriasis and Alopecia areata*** - **Nail pitting** is a very common and characteristic finding in **psoriasis**, resulting from defective keratinization of the nail matrix. - While less common, nail pitting can also occur in **alopecia areata**, typically due to inflammation affecting the nail matrix. *Psoriasis only* - While **psoriasis** is a primary cause of nail pitting, stating it as "only" is incorrect as other conditions also present with this sign. - This option incorrectly limits the differential diagnosis for nail pitting. *Psoriasis and Lichen planus* - **Psoriasis** does cause nail pitting, but **lichen planus** typically causes **longitudinal ridging**, splitting, subungual hyperkeratosis, and sometimes pterygium formation, rather than classic pitting. - This option includes a condition that usually manifests with different nail changes. *Alopecia areata and Eczema* - **Alopecia areata** can cause nail pitting, but **eczema** of the hands or fingers more commonly leads to **nail plate dystrophy**, discoloration, ridging, or thickening, rather than distinct pitting. - While eczema can affect nails, pitting is not its characteristic nail manifestation.

Q: A 40-year-old male presented with fever, cough with expectoration and shoness of breath, mild confusion for 1 week. Patient gave history of shower in a public washroom 10 days back. Patient also repoed some episodes of diarrhoea. Sputum sample was taken. And gram staining and direct fluorescent antibody test were done. CT Scan Which of the following lab findings would be most commonly found: -

Hyponatremia. ***Hyponatremia*** - **Legionella pneumonia** often causes syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) secretion, leading to **dilutional hyponatremia**. - **Gastrointestinal symptoms** like diarrhea, commonly associated with *Legionella* infection, can also contribute to electrolyte imbalances via fluid loss. *Hypocalcemia* - While electrolyte abnormalities can occur, **hypocalcemia** is not a classic or most common finding specifically associated with *Legionella* pneumonia. - It is more typically seen in conditions like **sepsis** or **acute pancreatitis**, which present differently. *Hypernatremia* - **Hypernatremia** indicates a deficit of total body water relative to total body sodium, which is less common in *Legionella* pneumonia, where **SIADH** typically leads to water retention. - Dehydration can cause hypernatremia, but the overall clinical picture of *Legionella* pneumonia and associated GI symptoms usually doesn't lead to this severe imbalance. *Hypercalcemia* - **Hypercalcemia** is a rare finding in acute infections and is generally not associated with *Legionella* pneumonia. - It is more characteristic of conditions like **malignancy** or **hyperparathyroidism**.

Q: A patient with HIV presents with extensive anogenital warts. Which HPV types are most commonly associated with malignant transformation in this setting?

Types 16 and 18. ***Types 16 and 18*** - **HPV types 16 and 18** are considered **high-risk** and are responsible for the majority of HPV-related cancers, including cervical, anal, and oropharyngeal cancers. - In HIV-positive individuals, the risk of malignant transformation from HPV infection is significantly increased due to **immunocompromise**. *Types 42 and 43* - **HPV types 42 and 43** are classified as **low-risk** HPV types. - They are primarily associated with **benign anogenital warts** and rarely cause malignant transformation. *Types 31 and 33* - **HPV types 31 and 33** are also considered **high-risk** types and can cause malignant transformation. - However, **types 16 and 18** are more frequently associated with HPV-related cancers than types 31 and 33. *Types 6 and 11* - **HPV types 6 and 11** are **low-risk** types and are the primary cause of **genital warts (condyloma acuminata)**. - While they can cause extensive warts, they have a very low potential for malignant transformation.

Q: A 24 month child, with a weight of 11 kg, has RR of 38 / min, chest indrawing, cough and fever. Management according to IMNCI?

Give antibiotics. ***Give antibiotics*** - The child presents with **chest indrawing** along with cough and fever, which according to **IMNCI guidelines** classifies as **pneumonia**. - Note: RR of 38/min is **within normal limits** for a 24-month-old child (fast breathing threshold is ≥40/min for 12-59 months age group). - The diagnosis of pneumonia is based on the presence of **chest indrawing**, not fast breathing in this case. - According to **IMNCI**, pneumonia (without danger signs) should be treated with **oral antibiotics** (amoxicillin 250 mg twice daily for 5 days) at the primary care level. - The child should be followed up in 2 days and the mother advised on when to return immediately. *Refer to a higher-level health facility for further management.* - Referral is indicated for **severe pneumonia**, which requires presence of any **general danger sign** (inability to drink/breastfeed, persistent vomiting, convulsions, lethargy/unconsciousness, or stridor in calm child). - This child has **pneumonia** (not severe), so outpatient treatment with oral antibiotics is appropriate. *Monitor at home without medical treatment.* - This would be inappropriate as the child has **pneumonia** requiring antibiotic treatment. - Untreated pneumonia can rapidly progress to severe disease and is a **leading cause of child mortality** in developing countries. *Provide symptomatic treatment with antipyretics only.* - While antipyretics (paracetamol) can be given for fever, they do not treat the underlying **bacterial infection**. - Antibiotics are essential to treat pneumonia and prevent complications and mortality.

Q: A blood specimen for neonatal thyroid screening is obtained on:

48 hours after birth. ***48 hours after birth*** - Neonatal thyroid screening is optimally performed at **48-72 hours** after birth, with **48 hours** being the most practical timing in current practice. - This timing balances two important factors: avoiding the **physiological TSH surge** that occurs in the first 24 hours, while ensuring screening occurs **before early hospital discharge**. - According to **IAP (Indian Academy of Pediatrics)** and international guidelines, screening at 48 hours allows accurate detection of congenital hypothyroidism while being realistic for modern obstetric practices where most mothers are discharged within 48 hours. - The **thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)** levels have normalized sufficiently by 48 hours to minimize false-positive results. *Cord blood* - Cord blood is not used for routine neonatal thyroid screening because **maternal thyroid hormones** (T4 and T3) cross the placenta and can mask congenital hypothyroidism in the newborn. - It does not reflect the newborn's **independent thyroid function**, which is essential for identifying congenital disorders. *24 hours after birth* - Drawing blood at 24 hours is generally **too early** for optimal thyroid screening, as the **postnatal TSH surge** is still significant. - This timing would result in a higher rate of **false-positive results**, leading to unnecessary follow-up tests and parental anxiety. - However, if discharge occurs before 48 hours, screening at 24 hours is preferable to missing screening entirely. *72 hours after birth* - While 72 hours was traditionally recommended for thyroid screening, it is **no longer practical** in the era of early hospital discharge. - Most mothers and babies are discharged within **48 hours**, making 72-hour screening logistically difficult and risking missed screening. - Current guidelines recommend **48-72 hours OR at discharge, whichever is earlier**, making 48 hours the most optimal single timepoint.

Q: The mechanism of action of botulinum toxin A is best described by:

Presynaptic blockade of acetylcholine release. ***Presynaptic blockade of acetylcholine release*** - **Botulinum toxin A** acts by cleaving specific proteins (**SNARE proteins** like SNAP-25, synaptobrevin, and syntaxin) essential for the fusion of **acetylcholine-containing vesicles** with the presynaptic membrane. - This prevents the release of acetylcholine into the **neuromuscular junction**, leading to muscle paralysis. *Slowing of myelinated nerve fiber transmission* - This describes the action of agents that affect **myelin sheaths** (e.g., demyelinating diseases) or ion channels involved in action potential propagation, not the mechanism of botulinum toxin. - Botulinum toxin specifically targets the **synaptic transmission**, not the speed of nerve conduction itself. *Postsynaptic receptor blockade* - This mechanism is seen with drugs like **curare** or **neuromuscular blockers** (e.g., rocuronium, vecuronium), which compete with acetylcholine for binding to **nicotinic acetylcholine receptors** on the muscle endplate. - Botulinum toxin does not affect the postsynaptic receptors directly; its action is entirely presynaptic. *Acetylcholinesterase inhibition* - **Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors** (e.g., neostigmine, pyridostigmine) prevent the breakdown of acetylcholine in the synaptic cleft, increasing its concentration and prolonging its action. - This mechanism would enhance, rather than block, muscle contraction, which is opposite to the effect of botulinum toxin.

Q: A 40 years old male was brought emergency with severe abdominal pain. On examination, pulse rate was 112/minute and systolic BP was 80 mmHg. Chest x-ray is given below. What is the most appropriate management?

Exploratory laparotomy. ***Exploratory laparotomy*** - The chest x-ray shows **pneumoperitoneum (air under the diaphragm)**, which, combined with severe abdominal pain, tachycardia, and hypotension (signs of **septic shock**), is highly indicative of a **perforated viscus**. - **Emergency exploratory laparotomy** is the definitive treatment to identify and repair the perforation, control contamination, and prevent further deterioration. *Saline wash of stomach* - This procedure is typically used for gastric lavage in cases of **poisoning or drug overdose**, or to clear the stomach in preparation for endoscopy. - It does not address a viscus perforation or the widespread abdominal contamination and systemic septic response seen in this patient. *Intercostal tube drainage* - **Intercostal tube drainage** (chest tube placement) is used to drain air (pneumothorax) or fluid (pleural effusion, hemothorax, empyema) from the pleural space, not the abdominal cavity. - While there is air visible on the x-ray, it is **subdiaphragmatic (pneumoperitoneum)**, not within the pleural space, and thus a chest tube would be ineffective and inappropriate. *IV antibiotics* - **Intravenous antibiotics** are crucial for managing sepsis associated with a perforated viscus and should be administered promptly. - However, antibiotics alone are **not sufficient** to treat the underlying mechanical problem of a perforation, which requires surgical repair to prevent ongoing bacterial contamination and sepsis.

Q: Most sensitive investigation for abdominal trauma in a hemodynamically stable patient is-

CT Scan (Computed Tomography). ***CT Scan (Computed Tomography)*** - **CT scans** offer superior anatomical detail and can accurately detect organ damage, hemorrhage, and other injuries in **hemodynamically stable** patients with abdominal trauma. - It is considered the **most sensitive** and specific imaging modality for evaluating blunt and penetrating abdominal trauma when the patient can tolerate the study. *Ultrasonography (FAST)* - While effective for detecting **free fluid** (blood) in specific abdominal areas, **Focused Assessment with Sonography for Trauma (FAST)** has lower sensitivity for solid organ injuries or bowel perforations. - Its primary role is rapid assessment for **hemoperitoneum** to guide immediate management in unstable patients, not detailed injury characterization. *Diagnostic peritoneal lavage (DPL)* - **DPL** is an invasive procedure with high sensitivity for detecting **intraperitoneal bleeding**, but it does not identify specific organ injuries or retroperitoneal hemorrhage. - It is rarely used in hemodynamically stable patients due to its invasiveness and the availability of more detailed imaging techniques. *MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging)* - **MRI** provides excellent soft tissue contrast but is typically too **time-consuming** and less accessible in urgent trauma settings compared to CT. - It's generally not the first-line investigation for acute abdominal trauma due to motion artifacts and limited utility in detecting air or bone injuries.

Question 1

STEPwise approach to surveillance for Non-Communicable diseases step 2 is

Accepted Answer

Physical measurement

Answer

Biochemical Measurement

Answer

Behavioral measurement

Answer

Emotional Assessment

Question 2

A 22-year-old woman presents with diffuse hair loss for 1 month. She had a past history of enteric fever 4 months ago. What is the likely cause?

Accepted Answer

Telogen effluvium

Answer

Androgenic alopecia

Answer

Alopecia areata

Answer

Anagen effluvium

Question 3

Pitting of nails is seen in:

Accepted Answer

Psoriasis and Alopecia areata

Answer

Psoriasis only

Answer

Psoriasis and Lichen planus

Answer

Alopecia areata and Eczema

Question 4

A 40-year-old male presented with fever, cough with expectoration and shoness of breath, mild confusion for 1 week. Patient gave history of shower in a public washroom 10 days back. Patient also repoed some episodes of diarrhoea. Sputum sample was taken. And gram staining and direct fluorescent antibody test were done. CT Scan Which of the following lab findings would be most commonly found: -

Accepted Answer

Hyponatremia

Answer

Hypocalcemia

Answer

Hypernatremia

Answer

Hypercalcemia

Question 5

A patient with HIV presents with extensive anogenital warts. Which HPV types are most commonly associated with malignant transformation in this setting?

Accepted Answer

Types 16 and 18

Answer

Types 42 and 43

Answer

Types 31 and 33

Answer

Types 6 and 11

Question 6

A 24 month child, with a weight of 11 kg, has RR of 38 / min, chest indrawing, cough and fever. Management according to IMNCI?

Accepted Answer

Give antibiotics

Answer

Refer to a higher-level health facility for further management.

Answer

Monitor at home without medical treatment.

Answer

Provide symptomatic treatment with antipyretics only.

Question 7

A blood specimen for neonatal thyroid screening is obtained on:

Accepted Answer

48 hours after birth

Answer

Cord blood

Answer

24 hours after birth

Answer

72 hours after birth

Question 8

The mechanism of action of botulinum toxin A is best described by:

Accepted Answer

Presynaptic blockade of acetylcholine release

Answer

Slowing of myelinated nerve fiber transmission

Answer

Postsynaptic receptor blockade

Answer

Acetylcholinesterase inhibition

Question 9

A 40 years old male was brought emergency with severe abdominal pain. On examination, pulse rate was 112/minute and systolic BP was 80 mmHg. Chest x-ray is given below. What is the most appropriate management?

Accepted Answer

Exploratory laparotomy

Answer

Saline wash of stomach

Answer

Intercostal tube drainage

Answer

IV antibiotics

Question 10

Most sensitive investigation for abdominal trauma in a hemodynamically stable patient is-

Accepted Answer

CT Scan (Computed Tomography)

Answer

Ultrasonography (FAST)

Answer

Diagnostic peritoneal lavage (DPL)

Answer

MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging)

NEET-PG 2022

Community Medicine

Dermatology

Internal Medicine

Microbiology

Pediatrics

Pharmacology

Surgery