NEET-PG 2022 Practice Questions

Q: Magnesium is not involved in ?

Hemoglobin synthesis. ***Hemoglobin synthesis*** - **Magnesium** is not directly involved in the synthesis of **hemoglobin**; **iron** is the crucial mineral for this process. - While magnesium is vital for many enzymatic reactions, it does not play a direct role in forming the heme structure or globin chains. *Cellular oxidation* - **Magnesium** acts as a **cofactor** for numerous enzymes involved in **cellular respiration** and **oxidative phosphorylation**, which are key processes in cellular oxidation. - These enzymatic reactions are critical for energy production within the cell. *Membrane transport* - **Magnesium** ions are essential for the proper functioning of various **ion channels** and **pumps**, such as the **Na+/K+ ATPase**, which are fundamental for maintaining **membrane potential** and **active transport**. - It influences the permeability of cell membranes and the movement of substances across them. *Glucose tolerance* - **Magnesium** plays a significant role in **glucose metabolism** and **insulin signaling**, affecting **glucose uptake** and utilization by cells, thereby influencing **glucose tolerance**. - Deficiency in magnesium has been linked to **insulin resistance** and an increased risk of **type 2 diabetes**.

Q: Contaminated tubing and catheters will be disposed in which bag according to biomedical waste management?

Red. ***Red Container*** - The **red bag** is designated for **contaminated recyclable waste** including tubing, catheters, intravenous sets, and soiled plastic items. - This waste is highly infectious and undergoes **autoclaving** or **microwaving** to disinfect it before recycling. *Yellow Container* - The **yellow bag** is used for **highly infectious waste** such as human anatomical waste, medical dressings, and microbiological waste. - This waste is typically **incinerated** or undergoes deep burial. *Blue Container* - The **blue/white puncture-proof container** is used for **sharp objects** like needles, syringes with fixed needles, and scalpel blades. - This waste is often **autoclaved** and then shredded or vitrified to prevent reuse and injury. *White Container* - In some biomedical waste management systems, a **white translucent container** is used for **glassware** that is contaminated with blood or body fluids, such as broken glass ampoules or vials. - The specific color codes can vary slightly between regions, but the red bag is consistently for contaminated plastic/tubing.

Q: Hymenal tear following first sexual intercourse most commonly occurs at which position:

6 o'clock. ***Correct: 6 o'clock*** - The **hymen** is most commonly torn at the **6 o'clock position** (inferiorly) due to the direction of typical coital forces during first intercourse. - This area is usually the **thinnest** and **least supported**, making it more susceptible to tearing during initial penetration. - This is the most consistently reported site for initial hymenal tears in forensic and gynecological literature. *Incorrect: 11 o'clock* - While hymenal tears can occur at other positions, the **11 o'clock position** is not the most common site of rupture during first intercourse. - Tears at superior or lateral positions are less frequent unless there are unusual circumstances or anatomical variations. *Incorrect: 12 o'clock* - The **12 o'clock position** (superiorly) is less commonly the primary site of hymenal rupture during first intercourse. - The majority of tears are observed inferiorly (at 6 o'clock) due to the anatomy and mechanics of penetration. *Incorrect: All of the above* - While it is possible for the hymen to tear at **multiple positions** or in various configurations, the question asks for the *most common* position. - The 6 o'clock position is the most consistently reported site for initial hymenal tears, not all positions equally.

Q: A patient is having a continuous tremor and he has tendency to fall. Lesion is most commonly seen in?

Substantia Nigra. ***Substantia Nigra*** - A lesion in the **substantia nigra** leads to a deficiency of **dopamine**, which is characteristic of **Parkinson's disease** [1]. - Symptoms like **continuous tremor (resting tremor)**, **postural instability (tendency to fall)**, rigidity, and bradykinesia are hallmark features of Parkinson's disease, linked to substantia nigra degeneration [1], [2]. *Putamen* - While the putamen is part of the basal ganglia and involved in motor control, its primary lesion is not typically associated with the classic triad of **Parkinsonian symptoms** (tremor, rigidity, bradykinesia) [1]. - Lesions here might instead contribute to involuntary movements like **dystonia** or **chorea**, which are not described. *Globus pallidus* - The globus pallidus is involved in regulating voluntary movement, and lesions here can cause various movement disorders, including **dystonia**, **chorea**, or **hemiballismus** [2]. - However, isolated pallidal lesions are less commonly the primary cause of the specific combination of **resting tremor** and **falls** seen in Parkinson's. *Caudate nucleus* - The caudate nucleus plays a crucial role in cognitive and motor functions and is primarily affected in diseases like **Huntington's disease**, leading to **chorea** and cognitive decline [2]. - Lesions in the caudate nucleus do not typically present with a **continuous tremor** and **tendency to fall** as the predominant symptoms.

Q: A 35-year-old heterosexual patient diagnosed with HIV presents with watery diarrhea. The colonoscopic biopsy is shown below. Which of the following is your most probable diagnosis?

Cryptosporidium. ***Cryptosporidium*** - The image shows numerous small, round **Cryptosporidium oocysts** lining the **brush border** of the intestinal epithelial cells, a classic histological finding in disseminated disease in immunocompromised patients. - In an HIV patient with watery diarrhea, **Cryptosporidiosis** is a common opportunistic infection, especially when CD4 counts are low. *Giardia* - **Giardia lamblia** typically appears as teardrop-shaped trophozoites or oval cysts. Trophozoites would be motile in stool samples or adhere to the brush border but are much larger and morphologically distinct from the structures seen here. - While it causes watery diarrhea, the histological appearance does not match the small, bead-like structures on the epithelial surface. *CMV* - **Cytomegalovirus (CMV)** infection in the gut would typically show **cytomegalic cells** with characteristic **intranuclear inclusions** (owl's eye inclusions) and sometimes intracytoplasmic inclusions within various cell types, including endothelial cells and fibroblasts. - The image does not display these large, virally infected cells or inclusion bodies; instead, it shows numerous small parasitic forms on the surface. *Microsporidia* - **Microsporidia** are intracellular parasites that infect enterocytes and cause watery diarrhea in HIV patients. They are extremely small and often require special stains (e.g., modified trichrome, Warthin-Starry silver stain) or electron microscopy for definitive identification. - While they are small, the parasites in the image appear more superficial and exhibit a distinct spherical shape consistent with *Cryptosporidium* oocysts rather than the typically intracellular, punctate forms of microsporidia, which are harder to see with routine H&E staining without significant intracellular disruption.

Q: A couple comes for evaluation of infertility. The HSG was normal but semen analysis revealed azoospermia. What is the diagnostic test to differentiate between testicular failure and vas deferens obstruction?

Serum FSH. ***Serum FSH*** - In **testicular failure**, the pituitary gland tries to compensate for poor sperm production by increasing **follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)**, leading to **elevated FSH levels**. - In **vas deferens obstruction**, the testes are producing sperm normally, so the pituitary does not need to overstimulate them, resulting in **normal FSH levels**. *Testicular FNAC* - **Fine needle aspiration cytology (FNAC)** of the testis can *confirm* the presence or absence of sperm production but is not the primary diagnostic test to *differentiate* between the two conditions without prior hormonal assessment. - It is an **invasive procedure** typically considered after initial hormone testing and physical examination. *Testosterone levels* - **Testosterone levels** primarily reflect the Leydig cell function and can be normal in both **testicular failure** (especially germ cell-specific failure) and **vas deferens obstruction**. - While low testosterone can indicate Leydig cell dysfunction, it doesn't specifically differentiate between the two causes of azoospermia in all cases. *Karyotyping* - **Karyotyping** is used to detect **chromosomal abnormalities** (e.g., Klinefelter syndrome) that can cause testicular failure. - While important for identifying underlying genetic causes, it does not directly differentiate between existing testicular failure and vas deferens obstruction based on direct physiological function.

Q: Among the following the plane of least pelvic dimension is:

Mid-cavity. ***Mid-cavity*** - The **mid-cavity** or **mid-pelvis** is the plane of smallest dimensions during labor, defined by the ischial spines laterally [1]. - This plane is crucial for determining if a fetus can successfully navigate the birth canal, as it represents the narrowest point [1]. *Inlet* - The **pelvic inlet** is the widest part of the pelvis and usually poses less of a restriction during the descent of the fetal head [1]. - It is bounded by the sacral promontory, arcuate line, pectineal line, and pubic crest [2]. *False pelvis* - The **false pelvis** is the upper, broader part of the pelvis and does not play a direct role in guiding the fetal head through the birth canal [1]. - Its boundaries are largely abdominal and do not define crucial dimensions for passage [2]. *Outlet* - The **pelvic outlet** is the final opening that the fetal head must pass through, and while its dimensions are important, the mid-cavity is generally the narrowest point. - Its dimensions are measured from the pubic arch to the tip of the coccyx [3].

Q: What is the role of fixer?

It removes the extra silver halides which are unfixed.. ***It removes the extra silver halides which are unfixed.*** - The fixer solution plays a crucial role in creating a permanent radiographic image by **dissolving and removing all unexposed and undeveloped silver halide crystals** from the film emulsion. - This process prevents the film from darkening over time and ensures that only the areas exposed to radiation, forming the latent image, remain visible. *It binds developer to film.* - The developer's role is to **convert exposed silver halide crystals into metallic silver**, creating the visible image, but it does not bind to the film permanently. - The fixer step follows development to remove unexposed crystals, not to bind the developer. *It takes away extra developer solution.* - While the fixer follows the developer bath, its primary role is not simply to remove residual developer solution; that function is more closely associated with the **rinse step** between development and fixing. - The main action of the fixer involves chemical removal of silver halides. *It strengthens/fixes the silver halides on to X-ray film.* - The developer is responsible for converting exposed silver halides into visible silver, but the fixer actually **removes the *unfixed*** silver halides, rather than strengthening or "fixing" them onto the film. - This removal is essential for a stable and clear image, as any remaining unfixed halides would eventually darken.

Q: While shaving, a 45-year-old teacher notices a marble-sized mass beneath his left ear. The mass is eventually excised, revealing which of the following benign parotid gland lesions?

Warthin tumor. ***Warthin tumor*** - **Warthin tumors** are benign, cystic tumors of the parotid gland, often presenting as a painless, soft, and mobile mass, consistent with a "marble-sized mass." - They are the second most common benign parotid neoplasm and are frequently found in older men, especially those who smoke. *Cystic dilation* - While cystic dilation can occur in the parotid gland, it is typically associated with conditions like **sialolithiasis** (salivary stones) or ductal obstruction, which would usually present with pain and swelling secondary to eating. - The description of a "marble-sized mass" without other symptoms is less typical for simple cystic dilation. *Mikulicz's disease* - Mikulicz's disease, or **IgG4-related sclerosing disease**, is a systemic condition characterized by chronic inflammation and fibrosis of exocrine glands, leading to bilateral, diffuse enlargement of various glands, including the parotid. - It usually presents with diffuse, persistent swelling, not a solitary, marble-sized mass, and is associated with elevated IgG4 levels. *Glandular hypertrophy, secondary to vitamin A deficiency* - **Glandular hypertrophy** of the parotid gland can occur due to various systemic conditions, but it is typically a diffuse, bilateral enlargement, not a discrete, unilateral mass. - While vitamin A deficiency can lead to metaplasia of glandular epithelium, it is not a direct cause of parotid gland hypertrophy or discrete mass formation.

Question 1

Magnesium is not involved in ?

Accepted Answer

Hemoglobin synthesis

Answer

Cellular oxidation

Answer

Membrane transport

Answer

Glucose tolerance

Question 2

Contaminated tubing and catheters will be disposed in which bag according to biomedical waste management?

Accepted Answer

Red

Answer

Yellow

Answer

Blue

Answer

White

Question 3

A farmer has an ulcer on leg with indurated margin and multiple sinuses with discharging granules. The likely diagnosis is -

Accepted Answer

Mycetoma

Answer

Lupus vulgaris

Answer

Actinomycosis

Answer

Scrofuloderma

Question 4

Hymenal tear following first sexual intercourse most commonly occurs at which position:

Accepted Answer

6 o'clock

Answer

11 o'clock

Answer

12 o'clock

Answer

All of the above

Question 5

A patient is having a continuous tremor and he has tendency to fall. Lesion is most commonly seen in?

Accepted Answer

Substantia Nigra

Answer

Putamen

Answer

Globus pallidus

Answer

Caudate nucleus

Question 6

A 35-year-old heterosexual patient diagnosed with HIV presents with watery diarrhea. The colonoscopic biopsy is shown below. Which of the following is your most probable diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Cryptosporidium

Answer

Giardia

Answer

CMV

Answer

Microsporidia

Question 7

A couple comes for evaluation of infertility. The HSG was normal but semen analysis revealed azoospermia. What is the diagnostic test to differentiate between testicular failure and vas deferens obstruction?

Accepted Answer

Serum FSH

Answer

Testicular FNAC

Answer

Testosterone levels

Answer

Karyotyping

Question 8

Among the following the plane of least pelvic dimension is:

Accepted Answer

Mid-cavity

Answer

Inlet

Answer

False pelvis

Answer

Outlet

Question 9

What is the role of fixer?

Accepted Answer

It removes the extra silver halides which are unfixed.

Answer

It binds developer to film.

Answer

It takes away extra developer solution.

Answer

It strengthens/fixes the silver halides on to X-ray film.

Question 10

While shaving, a 45-year-old teacher notices a marble-sized mass beneath his left ear. The mass is eventually excised, revealing which of the following benign parotid gland lesions?

Accepted Answer

Warthin tumor

Answer

Cystic dilation

Answer

Mikulicz's disease

Answer

Glandular hypertrophy, secondary to vitamin A deficiency

NEET-PG 2022

Biochemistry

Community Medicine

Dermatology

Forensic Medicine

Internal Medicine

Microbiology

Obstetrics and Gynecology

Radiology

Surgery