NEET-PG 2022

Q: Altered sensation over the area of the great saphenous vein in the leg is seen due to an injury to which of the following nerves?

Femoral. ***Femoral*** - The **femoral nerve** gives rise to the **saphenous nerve**, which runs with the great saphenous vein and provides sensation to the medial aspect of the leg and foot. - Injury to the femoral nerve or its saphenous branch can result in altered sensation in the distribution of the **great saphenous vein**. *Tibial* - The **tibial nerve** innervates muscles in the posterior compartment of the leg and provides sensation to the sole of the foot and parts of the ankle, not the area of the great saphenous vein. - Injury to the tibial nerve often leads to **motor deficits** (plantar flexion) and sensory loss on the bottom of the foot. *Sural* - The **sural nerve** provides sensation to the posterolateral aspect of the leg and the lateral side of the foot, distinct from the great saphenous vein's territory. - This nerve is often injured during procedures around the **lateral malleolus** or Achilles tendon. *Fibular* - The **fibular nerve** (also known as the common peroneal nerve) innervates the anterior and lateral compartments of the leg and provides sensation to the dorsum of the foot and lateral leg. - Injury typically results in **foot drop** and sensory loss **dorsum of foot**. [Practice more NEET-PG 2022 questions on OnCourse]

Q: A 50-year-old man with carcinoma of the prostate presents with X-ray findings showing sclerosis and collapse of T10 and T11 vertebrae. The spread of cancer to these vertebrae most probably occurred through which route?

Internal vertebral plexus of veins (Batson's plexus). ***Internal vertebral plexus of veins (Batson's plexus)*** - The **Batson's plexus** is a valveless network of veins directly connecting the pelvic venous plexuses (including those draining the prostate) with the vertebral venous system. - This valveless nature allows for easy retrograde flow of tumor cells, especially during increases in intra-abdominal pressure (e.g., coughing, straining), facilitating direct spread from the prostate to the vertebrae. *Spread through the sacral canal to the vertebrae* - While the sacral canal contains structures, it is a bony canal and not a primary route for direct hematogenous or lymphatic metastatic spread of prostate cancer to the vertebral bodies. - Metastasis through the sacral canal itself would typically imply direct extension or invasion, which is less common for widespread vertebral metastases than venous dissemination. *Spread via superior rectal veins to the vertebrae* - The **superior rectal veins** drain into the inferior mesenteric vein, which is part of the portal system, eventually leading to the hepatic circulation. - While this route can lead to liver metastases, it generally does not directly connect to the vertebral venous system in a way that would explain isolated vertebral metastases without liver involvement. *Spread through lymphatic vessels to the vertebrae* - Lymphatic spread from prostate cancer typically involves regional **pelvic lymph nodes** first (e.g., obturator, internal iliac, presacral). - While lymphatic spread can occur, it usually precedes or accompanies distant metastases and is less likely to be the sole, direct route for vertebral involvement without evident lymphadenopathy in the direct path. [Practice more NEET-PG 2022 questions on OnCourse]

Q: Uncontrolled diabetes poses a problem to a prosthodontist as

more bone resorption. ***more bone resorption*** - Uncontrolled diabetes *impairs bone metabolism and regeneration*, leading to increased **osteoclastic activity** and reduced osteoblastic function, which results in *greater bone loss*. - This heightened bone resorption makes it difficult to achieve **stable denture retention** and can compromise the success of *dental implants* and other prosthodontic treatments. *increased salivary flow* - Diabetes often causes **xerostomia** (dry mouth) due to *reduced salivary gland function*, not increased salivary flow. - Reduced salivary flow impacts *denture retention, lubrication, and oral hygiene*, making it a further challenge for prosthodontists. *less bone resorption* - This statement is incorrect; uncontrolled diabetes is associated with *increased, not decreased, bone resorption*. - **Hyperglycemia** negatively affects bone health through various mechanisms, including advanced glycation end-products (AGEs) formation and systemic inflammation. *increased tissue laxity* - While diabetes can affect connective tissues, the primary and most significant prosthodontic concern regarding bone is **increased bone resorption**, not necessarily generalized tissue laxity that directly impacts denture stability in the same way. - **Poorly controlled diabetes** can lead to issues like reduced wound healing and increased susceptibility to infection, which are also relevant, but bone resorption is a more direct mechanical issue for prosthodontics. [Practice more NEET-PG 2022 questions on OnCourse]

Q: All are true regarding oral hairy leukoplakia except which of the following?

It is premalignant. ***It is premalignant*** - Oral hairy leukoplakia is associated with **Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)** and is not considered a precancerous condition [1]. - This condition is primarily seen in immunocompromised individuals and does not progress to malignancy [1]. *Hyperkeratosis on HPE* - Histopathological examination typically reveals **keratinized epithelial layers** but is not characterized by prominent hyperkeratosis. - Rather, it shows **ballooning degeneration** of epithelial cells rather than classic hyperkeratotic features [1]. *Associated with EBV infection* - Oral hairy leukoplakia is strongly associated with **EBV**, particularly in immunocompromised patients [1]. - It manifests as white plaques on the lateral borders of the tongue due to **viral replication** of EBV-infected epithelial cells [1]. *Seen in HIV infected patients* - This condition is commonly seen in **HIV-infected individuals**, particularly those with a low CD4 count [1]. - It serves as a clinical marker for **immunosuppression** but is not exclusive to HIV [1]. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Lung, pp. 737-738. [Practice more NEET-PG 2022 questions on OnCourse]

Q: In which context are leading questions allowed?

Cross-examination. ***Cross-examination*** - Leading questions are permissible during **cross-examination** to challenge the witness's testimony and test credibility. - The purpose is to **elicit specific details**, confirm facts, or highlight inconsistencies in prior statements. *Direct examination* - Leading questions are **generally not allowed** during direct examination because it is the phase where a party questions its own witness. - The goal is for the witness to provide testimony in their **own words**, without suggestions from the attorney. *Re-examination* - Leading questions are **not allowed** during re-examination, which occurs after cross-examination to clarify points raised. - The scope of re-examination is **limited to the matters** brought up during cross-examination, and leading questions would be inappropriate. *Dying declaration* - A dying declaration is a statement made by a person who believes they are about to die, concerning the cause of their death. - The admissibility of a dying declaration as evidence is an **exception to the hearsay rule** and does not involve questioning by attorneys in a formal court setting at the time the declaration is made. [Practice more NEET-PG 2022 questions on OnCourse]

136 Previous Year Questions with Answers & Explanations

136

Questions

Subjects

Anatomy

2 questions

Altered sensation over the area of the great saphenous vein in the leg is seen due to an injury to which of the following nerves?

A 50-year-old man with carcinoma of the prostate presents with X-ray findings showing sclerosis and collapse of T10 and T11 vertebrae. The spread of cancer to these vertebrae most probably occurred through which route?

NEET-PG 2022 - Anatomy NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 1: Altered sensation over the area of the great saphenous vein in the leg is seen due to an injury to which of the following nerves?

A. Fibular
B. Femoral (Correct Answer)
C. Tibial
D. Sural

Explanation: ***Femoral*** - The **femoral nerve** gives rise to the **saphenous nerve**, which runs with the great saphenous vein and provides sensation to the medial aspect of the leg and foot. - Injury to the femoral nerve or its saphenous branch can result in altered sensation in the distribution of the **great saphenous vein**. *Tibial* - The **tibial nerve** innervates muscles in the posterior compartment of the leg and provides sensation to the sole of the foot and parts of the ankle, not the area of the great saphenous vein. - Injury to the tibial nerve often leads to **motor deficits** (plantar flexion) and sensory loss on the bottom of the foot. *Sural* - The **sural nerve** provides sensation to the posterolateral aspect of the leg and the lateral side of the foot, distinct from the great saphenous vein's territory. - This nerve is often injured during procedures around the **lateral malleolus** or Achilles tendon. *Fibular* - The **fibular nerve** (also known as the common peroneal nerve) innervates the anterior and lateral compartments of the leg and provides sensation to the dorsum of the foot and lateral leg. - Injury typically results in **foot drop** and sensory loss **dorsum of foot**.

Question 2: A 50-year-old man with carcinoma of the prostate presents with X-ray findings showing sclerosis and collapse of T10 and T11 vertebrae. The spread of cancer to these vertebrae most probably occurred through which route?

A. Internal vertebral plexus of veins (Batson's plexus) (Correct Answer)
B. Spread through the sacral canal to the vertebrae
C. Spread via superior rectal veins to the vertebrae
D. Spread through lymphatic vessels to the vertebrae

Explanation: ***Internal vertebral plexus of veins (Batson's plexus)*** - The **Batson's plexus** is a valveless network of veins directly connecting the pelvic venous plexuses (including those draining the prostate) with the vertebral venous system. - This valveless nature allows for easy retrograde flow of tumor cells, especially during increases in intra-abdominal pressure (e.g., coughing, straining), facilitating direct spread from the prostate to the vertebrae. *Spread through the sacral canal to the vertebrae* - While the sacral canal contains structures, it is a bony canal and not a primary route for direct hematogenous or lymphatic metastatic spread of prostate cancer to the vertebral bodies. - Metastasis through the sacral canal itself would typically imply direct extension or invasion, which is less common for widespread vertebral metastases than venous dissemination. *Spread via superior rectal veins to the vertebrae* - The **superior rectal veins** drain into the inferior mesenteric vein, which is part of the portal system, eventually leading to the hepatic circulation. - While this route can lead to liver metastases, it generally does not directly connect to the vertebral venous system in a way that would explain isolated vertebral metastases without liver involvement. *Spread through lymphatic vessels to the vertebrae* - Lymphatic spread from prostate cancer typically involves regional **pelvic lymph nodes** first (e.g., obturator, internal iliac, presacral). - While lymphatic spread can occur, it usually precedes or accompanies distant metastases and is less likely to be the sole, direct route for vertebral involvement without evident lymphadenopathy in the direct path.

Dental

2 questions

Uncontrolled diabetes poses a problem to a prosthodontist as

All are true regarding oral hairy leukoplakia except which of the following?

NEET-PG 2022 - Dental NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 1: Uncontrolled diabetes poses a problem to a prosthodontist as

A. more bone resorption (Correct Answer)
B. increased salivary flow
C. less bone resorption
D. increased tissue laxity

Explanation: ***more bone resorption*** - Uncontrolled diabetes *impairs bone metabolism and regeneration*, leading to increased **osteoclastic activity** and reduced osteoblastic function, which results in *greater bone loss*. - This heightened bone resorption makes it difficult to achieve **stable denture retention** and can compromise the success of *dental implants* and other prosthodontic treatments. *increased salivary flow* - Diabetes often causes **xerostomia** (dry mouth) due to *reduced salivary gland function*, not increased salivary flow. - Reduced salivary flow impacts *denture retention, lubrication, and oral hygiene*, making it a further challenge for prosthodontists. *less bone resorption* - This statement is incorrect; uncontrolled diabetes is associated with *increased, not decreased, bone resorption*. - **Hyperglycemia** negatively affects bone health through various mechanisms, including advanced glycation end-products (AGEs) formation and systemic inflammation. *increased tissue laxity* - While diabetes can affect connective tissues, the primary and most significant prosthodontic concern regarding bone is **increased bone resorption**, not necessarily generalized tissue laxity that directly impacts denture stability in the same way. - **Poorly controlled diabetes** can lead to issues like reduced wound healing and increased susceptibility to infection, which are also relevant, but bone resorption is a more direct mechanical issue for prosthodontics.

Question 2: All are true regarding oral hairy leukoplakia except which of the following?

A. It is a benign condition associated with EBV infection.
B. Presents with corrugated white plaques
C. It is premalignant (Correct Answer)
D. Hyperkeratosis on HPE is not typically seen.

Explanation: ***It is premalignant*** - Oral hairy leukoplakia is associated with **Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)** and is not considered a precancerous condition [1]. - This condition is primarily seen in immunocompromised individuals and does not progress to malignancy [1]. *Hyperkeratosis on HPE* - Histopathological examination typically reveals **keratinized epithelial layers** but is not characterized by prominent hyperkeratosis. - Rather, it shows **ballooning degeneration** of epithelial cells rather than classic hyperkeratotic features [1]. *Associated with EBV infection* - Oral hairy leukoplakia is strongly associated with **EBV**, particularly in immunocompromised patients [1]. - It manifests as white plaques on the lateral borders of the tongue due to **viral replication** of EBV-infected epithelial cells [1]. *Seen in HIV infected patients* - This condition is commonly seen in **HIV-infected individuals**, particularly those with a low CD4 count [1]. - It serves as a clinical marker for **immunosuppression** but is not exclusive to HIV [1]. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Lung, pp. 737-738.

Forensic Medicine

1 questions

In which context are leading questions allowed?

Microbiology

1 questions

An HIV patient is admitted with malabsorption, fever, chronic diarrhea, and acid-fast positive organism. What is the likely causative agent?

Obstetrics and Gynecology

2 questions

A multigravida at term with a transverse lie and hand prolapse, along with a fetal heart rate of 140/min, is best managed by:

A woman with two children presents with galactorrhea and amenorrhea for one year. The most probable diagnosis is:

NEET-PG 2022 - Obstetrics and Gynecology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 1: A multigravida at term with a transverse lie and hand prolapse, along with a fetal heart rate of 140/min, is best managed by:

A. External cephalic version
B. Cesarean delivery (Correct Answer)
C. Breech delivery
D. Internal podalic version

Explanation: ***Cesarean delivery*** - A **transverse lie** at term is a contraindication to vaginal delivery, as the fetus cannot pass through the birth canal in this orientation. - The presence of **hand prolapse** further complicates the situation, increasing the risk of umbilical cord prolapse and fetal distress, making cesarean section the safest option. *External cephalic version* - This procedure is performed to change a **breech or transverse lie** to a cephalic presentation, but it is typically done *before* term, usually between 36-37 weeks. - It is contraindicated once labor has started or with **membrane rupture** and fetal parts prolapsed, as is implied by hand prolapse in this term patient. *Breech delivery* - Breech delivery involves the fetus presenting buttocks or feet first, which is not the case here; the presentation is **transverse lie** and **hand prolapse**. - While some breech deliveries can be attempted vaginally under specific circumstances, this patient's presentation makes it an inappropriate option. *Internal podalic version* - This procedure involves changing a **transverse lie** to a **breech presentation** by internal manipulation, often performed in cases of twin delivery for the second twin or in specific scenarios of malpresentation in earlier gestations. - It is rarely performed for a single fetus at term due to risks for both mother and fetus, especially with a **term fetus** and **hand prolapse**.

Question 2: A woman with two children presents with galactorrhea and amenorrhea for one year. The most probable diagnosis is:

A. Ectopic pregnancy
B. Prolactinoma (Correct Answer)
C. Pituitary apoplexy
D. Hypothalamic dysfunction

Explanation: ***Prolactinoma*** - The classic presentation of **galactorrhea** (milk production unrelated to pregnancy or breastfeeding) and **amenorrhea** (absence of menstruation) in a non-pregnant woman strongly suggests hyperprolactinemia, most commonly due to a **prolactin-secreting pituitary adenoma** (prolactinoma). - High prolactin levels can inhibit GnRH pulsatility from the hypothalamus, leading to decreased LH and FSH secretion, which in turn causes **anovulation** and thus amenorrhea. *Ectopic pregnancy* - This condition presents with symptoms like **abdominal pain**, vaginal bleeding, and a **positive pregnancy test**, which are not mentioned here. - While an ectopic pregnancy is a cause of amenorrhea, it does not typically cause galactorrhea. *Pituitary apoplexy* - This is an acute, life-threatening condition caused by hemorrhage or infarction of the pituitary gland, presenting with **sudden severe headache**, visual disturbances, and altered mental status. - While it can affect pituitary function, its acute onset and severe symptoms are inconsistent with the one-year history of galactorrhea and amenorrhea. *Hypothalamic dysfunction* - Although hypothalamic dysfunction can cause amenorrhea due to impaired GnRH release, it typically presents with **low or normal prolactin levels**, not elevated prolactin causing galactorrhea. - Conditions like **functional hypothalamic amenorrhea** (due to stress, excessive exercise, or low body weight) would involve a different hormonal profile.

Pediatrics

1 questions

What is the true statement regarding an 'at-risk baby'?

NEET-PG 2022 - Pediatrics NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 1: What is the true statement regarding an 'at-risk baby'?

A. Mild malnutrition with weight slightly below expected norms.
B. Socioeconomic risk due to high birth order (more than 3). (Correct Answer)
C. Normal birth weight above the critical threshold of 2.5 kg.
D. Severe malnutrition with weight significantly below expected norms.

Explanation: ***Socioeconomic risk due to high birth order (more than 3).*** - An **"at-risk baby"** is defined by specific criteria that identify infants vulnerable to adverse health outcomes during the neonatal and early infantile period. - **High birth order (>3)** is a recognized risk factor as per IAP (Indian Academy of Pediatrics) and WHO guidelines, primarily due to: - **Maternal depletion syndrome** (depleted maternal nutritional reserves from multiple pregnancies) - **Socioeconomic constraints** (limited resources spread across more children) - **Reduced parental attention** and care per child - Other criteria for "at-risk baby" include: birth weight <2.5 kg, preterm birth, birth asphyxia, congenital anomalies, and maternal risk factors. *Severe malnutrition with weight significantly below expected norms.* - This describes **severe acute malnutrition (SAM)** in an infant or child, which is a **nutritional disorder**, not a defining criterion of an "at-risk baby" at birth. - While malnutrition increases morbidity risk, the term "at-risk baby" specifically refers to **perinatal and neonatal risk factors** present at or around the time of birth. - SAM is a **consequence** that may develop later, rather than a defining characteristic of the "at-risk" classification. *Mild malnutrition with weight slightly below expected norms.* - **Mild malnutrition** is not a criterion for classifying a baby as "at-risk" in the standard pediatric definition. - The "at-risk baby" classification focuses on **specific measurable risk factors** (birth weight, gestational age, birth order, etc.) rather than mild nutritional deviations. *Normal birth weight above the critical threshold of 2.5 kg.* - A **normal birth weight (≥2.5 kg)** is actually a **protective factor** and indicates lower risk at birth. - This statement describes a baby who does **not meet the "at-risk" criteria** based on birth weight, though other risk factors could still be present. - Birth weight ≥2.5 kg is one indicator of adequate intrauterine growth and lower neonatal mortality risk.

Pharmacology

1 questions

Which of the following anticancer drugs is MOST characteristically associated with pulmonary fibrosis?

About NEET-PG 2022 Questions

This page contains 136 questions from the NEET-PG 2022 paper, organised across 21 subjects for focused practice. Every question comes with the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the underlying concept. Subject-wise organisation lets you target specific areas and identify which topics carried the most weight in this particular year.

Practising year-wise papers is essential for understanding how the NEET-PG exam evolves — you can spot trending topics, gauge difficulty shifts, and benchmark your readiness against a real paper. To take your preparation further, download the Oncourse app for AI-driven performance insights, spaced repetition of questions you got wrong, and a personalised study plan built around your NEET-PG goals.