A 22 year old woman comes with a non progressive mass in the left breast since 6 months. There are no associated symptoms. Examination shows a mobile mass not attached to the overlying skin or underlying tissue. The possible diagnosis is
Which type of surgical suture is known to cause the most tissue reaction?
What type of respiratory failure is most commonly observed in post-operative patients?
In which of the following cancers is intraoperative radiotherapy (IORT) applicable?
Which of the following statements accurately describes a subtotal thyroidectomy?
Which of the following statements about Branchial cysts is true:
A 40-year-old male with chest trauma presents with breathlessness, decreased respiratory sounds on the right side, hyperresonance on percussion, and distended neck veins. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Which of the following stages of lip carcinoma does not have nodal involvement?
A 54 year old woman is diagnosed as having carcinoma of the renal pelvis of size less than 4 cm without any metastasis. The best treatment option is
Which of the following is NOT a principle of negative pressure wound therapy?
NEET-PG 2015 - Surgery NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 51: A 22 year old woman comes with a non progressive mass in the left breast since 6 months. There are no associated symptoms. Examination shows a mobile mass not attached to the overlying skin or underlying tissue. The possible diagnosis is
- A. Fibroadenoma (Correct Answer)
- B. Cystasarcoma Phylloides
- C. Scirrhous Carcinoma
- D. Fibroadenosis
Explanation: ***Fibroadenoma*** - This is the most common benign breast tumor in young women, typically presenting as a **mobile, non-tender, firm mass** with no attachment to surrounding tissues. - The history of a **non-progressive mass** over six months in a 22-year-old woman is highly characteristic of a fibroadenoma. *Cystasarcoma Phylloides* - While it can present as a mobile mass, phyllodes tumors tend to grow **rapidly** and can reach a large size, which contradicts the "non-progressive" nature of the mass described. - Phyllodes tumors often have a **leaf-like architectural pattern** histologically and can be benign, borderline, or malignant. *Scirrhous Carcinoma* - This is a type of invasive ductal carcinoma that typically presents as a **hard, irregular, fixed mass** that is often attached to the skin or underlying tissue, unlike the mobile mass described here. - It is common in older women and often associated with **skin dimpling** or nipple retraction. *Fibroadenosis* - This refers to a group of benign breast changes, often presenting with generalized **lumpiness, pain, or tenderness** that fluctuates with the menstrual cycle, rather than a discrete, solitary mass. - It usually presents as **multiple, diffuse nodules** rather than a single, well-defined mass.
Question 52: Which type of surgical suture is known to cause the most tissue reaction?
- A. Plain Catgut
- B. Polydiaxonone
- C. Silk (Correct Answer)
- D. Chromic catgut
Explanation: ***Silk*** - Silk is a **natural, braided, non-absorbable suture** that is known to elicit a significant **inflammatory reaction** due to its natural protein composition and braided structure. - While it was historically used for its good handling properties, its high tissue reactivity makes it less ideal for situations where minimal scarring or inflammation is desired. - **Silk causes the most tissue reaction** among commonly used sutures. *Plain Catgut* - Plain catgut is a **natural, absorbable suture** derived from purified collagen of animal intestines, causing a moderate to high tissue reaction. - However, its absorption by enzymatic hydrolysis is relatively rapid, limiting the duration of the inflammatory response compared to non-absorbable natural materials like silk. *Polydiaxonone* - Polydiaxonone (PDS) is a **synthetic, monofilament, absorbable suture** known for causing a relatively **low tissue reaction**. - Its slow absorption profile and monofilament structure contribute to its minimal inflammatory response, making it suitable for tissues requiring prolonged support. *Chromic Catgut* - Chromic catgut is a treated form of plain catgut that has been coated with chromium salts, which prolong its absorption time and reduce its tissue reactivity compared to plain catgut. - Although it is still a natural, absorbable suture, its tissue reaction is **less than both plain catgut and silk**, but greater than synthetic monofilament sutures like PDS.
Question 53: What type of respiratory failure is most commonly observed in post-operative patients?
- A. Hypercapnic respiratory failure
- B. Mixed respiratory failure
- C. Perioperative respiratory failure
- D. Hypoxemic respiratory failure (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Hypoxemic respiratory failure*** - **Hypoxemic respiratory failure** (Type I) is characterized by a **PaO2 less than 60 mmHg** with a normal or low PaCO2, often due to **V/Q mismatch** and **shunt**. - Post-operative patients frequently develop **atelectasis**, **pneumonia**, or **pulmonary edema**, leading to impaired gas exchange and reduced oxygenation. - This is the **most commonly observed type** in the immediate post-operative period. *Hypercapnic respiratory failure* - **Hypercapnic respiratory failure** (Type II) is primarily due to **alveolar hypoventilation**, resulting in a **PaCO2 greater than 50 mmHg**. - While it can occur post-operatively, it is less common than hypoxemic failure and is typically seen with significant **sedation**, **neuromuscular blockade**, or severe **obstructive lung disease**. *Mixed respiratory failure* - **Mixed respiratory failure** involves both **hypoxemia** and **hypercapnia**, indicating severe impairment in both oxygenation and ventilation. - Although it can occur in severe post-operative complications, it is not the *most commonly observed initial presentation* compared to isolated hypoxemia. *Perioperative respiratory failure* - **Perioperative respiratory failure** (Type III) occurs specifically in the surgical setting and involves atelectasis from changes in chest wall mechanics. - While this occurs in the post-operative context, the term is less commonly used, and the **underlying mechanism is primarily hypoxemic** in nature.
Question 54: In which of the following cancers is intraoperative radiotherapy (IORT) applicable?
- A. Gastric cancer
- B. Colon carcinoma
- C. Pancreatic carcinoma
- D. All of the options (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***All of the options*** - **Intraoperative radiotherapy (IORT)** is applicable to all three cancers listed: gastric cancer, colon carcinoma, and pancreatic carcinoma. - IORT is a technique where a **single, high dose of radiation** is delivered to the tumor bed during surgery to improve local control and reduce late toxicity to surrounding healthy tissues. - All three cancers benefit from IORT due to their **high risk of local recurrence** and the ability to directly target the tumor bed while sparing adjacent critical organs. **Gastric cancer:** - IORT addresses **high rates of local recurrence** after conventional surgery, especially in locally advanced stages - Allows direct radiation of potentially involved regional lymph nodes or margins difficult to eradicate surgically - Particularly useful when complete surgical clearance carries excessive morbidity risk **Colon carcinoma:** - IORT considered in **locally advanced or recurrent disease**, particularly when tumors invade adjacent structures - Beneficial after resections with positive or close margins - Delivers high dose to microscopic residual disease in the tumor bed, avoiding damage to vital organs from external beam radiotherapy **Pancreatic carcinoma:** - High propensity for **local invasion and recurrence** makes IORT particularly relevant - Delivers high dose directly to tumor bed following resection when microscopic residual disease is suspected - Overcomes limitations of external beam radiation due to proximity of critical organs (duodenum, stomach, kidneys)
Question 55: Which of the following statements accurately describes a subtotal thyroidectomy?
- A. Removal of one lobe and isthmus
- B. Removal of 1 lobe with isthmus and the second lobe partially (Correct Answer)
- C. Removal of both lobes leaving behind 6-8 grams of tissue
- D. Removal of entire thyroid with cervical lymphnodes
Explanation: ***Removal of 1 lobe with isthmus and the second lobe partially*** - A **subtotal thyroidectomy** involves removing one complete thyroid lobe along with the isthmus, and partially resecting the contralateral lobe, leaving behind a small remnant of approximately **4-8 grams** on one side. - This procedure preserves parathyroid function and the recurrent laryngeal nerve while reducing thyroid tissue, commonly used for **bilateral multinodular goiter** or **Graves' disease**. - The retained remnant maintains some thyroid function and reduces the risk of permanent **hypothyroidism** and **hypoparathyroidism**. *Removal of one lobe and isthmus* - This describes a **hemithyroidectomy** or **thyroid lobectomy**, which involves complete removal of one lobe with the isthmus. - It is typically performed for **unilateral thyroid nodules**, **follicular neoplasms**, or small **well-differentiated thyroid cancers**. - It does not involve any resection of the contralateral lobe. *Removal of both lobes leaving behind 6-8 grams of tissue* - This would describe a **bilateral subtotal thyroidectomy**, where tissue is left on both sides. - While historically performed, this is **not the standard definition** of "subtotal thyroidectomy," which specifically refers to leaving remnant tissue on only one side. - Modern practice has largely replaced this with more definitive procedures. *Removal of entire thyroid with cervical lymphnodes* - This describes a **total thyroidectomy with central or lateral neck dissection**, performed for **thyroid malignancies** with lymph node involvement. - It aims to achieve complete oncological clearance and is followed by radioactive iodine therapy in differentiated thyroid cancers. - No thyroid tissue is intentionally preserved.
Question 56: Which of the following statements about Branchial cysts is true:
- A. 50-70% are seen in lungs
- B. They are premalignant lesions
- C. Infection is uncommon in branchial cysts
- D. Most common site is lateral neck (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Most common site is lateral neck*** - **Branchial cleft cysts** typically present as a mass in the **lateral neck**, anterior to the sternocleidomastoid muscle. - They are congenital anomalies resulting from incomplete obliteration of the branchial clefts during embryonic development. *50-70% are seen in lungs* - This statement is incorrect; branchial cysts are **cervical anomalous masses** arising from the branchial apparatus, not primarily found in the lungs. - Lung lesions are more commonly associated with congenital pulmonary airway malformations or bronchogenic cysts, which differ in origin. *They are premalignant lesions* - Branchial cysts are generally **benign lesions** and do not typically transform into malignancy. - While rare cases of carcinoma arising within a branchial cleft cyst have been reported, they are not considered routinely premalignant. *Infection is uncommon in branchial cysts* - Conversely, infection is a **common complication** of branchial cysts, often leading to sudden enlargement, pain, and erythema. - The presence of internal fluid and epithelial lining makes them susceptible to bacterial colonization and subsequent abscess formation.
Question 57: A 40-year-old male with chest trauma presents with breathlessness, decreased respiratory sounds on the right side, hyperresonance on percussion, and distended neck veins. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Tension Pneumothorax (Correct Answer)
- B. Flail Chest
- C. Myocardial Infarction
- D. Cardiac Tamponade
Explanation: ***Tension Pneumothorax*** - The classic triad of **breathlessness**, **decreased breath sounds** on the affected side, and **hyperresonance** on percussion following chest trauma is highly indicative of a tension pneumothorax. - **Distended neck veins** (jugular venous distension) occur due to increased intrathoracic pressure impeding venous return to the heart. *Cardiac Tamponade* - Characterized by **Beck's triad**: hypotension, muffled heart sounds, and jugular venous distension. - While **distended neck veins** are present, the absence of muffled heart sounds, the presence of decreased breath sounds, and hyperresonance point away from tamponade. *Flail Chest* - Defined by at least two contiguous ribs fractured in at least two places, leading to a **paradoxical movement** of the chest wall during respiration. - The key diagnostic feature of flail chest (paradoxical chest wall movement) is not described, nor are the breath sounds or percussion findings consistent with this diagnosis. *Myocardial Infarction* - Typically presents with **sudden chest pain**, often radiating to the left arm or jaw, and may cause breathlessness. - It does not cause **decreased breath sounds**, **hyperresonance**, or directly lead to these specific localized chest findings after trauma.
Question 58: Which of the following stages of lip carcinoma does not have nodal involvement?
- A. T2N1
- B. T3N0 (Correct Answer)
- C. T2N2
- D. T1N1
Explanation: ***T3N0*** - The **'N' classification** in the TNM staging system refers to **nodal involvement**. A stage with **'N0' indicates no regional lymph node metastasis**. - A **T3 lesion** signifies a large primary tumor, but if it's accompanied by **N0**, it means there's no evidence of spread to the lymph nodes. *T2N1* - The **'N1' classification** indicates the presence of **regional lymph node metastasis**, specifically in a **single ipsilateral lymph node** that is 3 cm or less in its greatest dimension. - This stage therefore **does have nodal involvement**, contradicting the premise of the question. *T2N2* - The **'N2' classification** signifies more advanced regional lymph node metastasis, such as a **single ipsilateral lymph node** greater than 3 cm but not more than 6 cm. - It could also refer to **multiple ipsilateral lymph nodes**, none greater than 6 cm, or bilateral/contralateral lymph nodes, none greater than 6 cm. In all these cases, **nodal involvement is present**. *T1N1* - Similar to T2N1, the **'N1' component** in T1N1 indicates the presence of **regional lymph node metastasis** in a single ipsilateral lymph node of 3 cm or less. - Therefore, this stage **does involve nodal spread**, despite having a smaller primary tumor (T1).
Question 59: A 54 year old woman is diagnosed as having carcinoma of the renal pelvis of size less than 4 cm without any metastasis. The best treatment option is
- A. Palliative Radiotherapy
- B. Chemotherapy and immunotherapy
- C. Partial nephrectomy
- D. Radical Nephroureterectomy (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Radical Nephroureterectomy*** - Carcinoma of the **renal pelvis** is a type of upper tract urothelial carcinoma (UTUC). Because of the multifocal nature and higher risk of recurrence of UTUC, **radical nephroureterectomy** (which includes removal of the kidney, ureter, and bladder cuff) is the standard treatment, even for smaller tumors. - Unlike renal cell carcinoma, partial nephrectomy is generally not recommended for renal pelvis carcinomas due to the risk of leaving behind residual disease in the ureter or bladder cuff. *Partial nephrectomy* - This is generally reserved for small, localized **renal cell carcinomas**, especially when kidney function preservation is a concern (e.g., solitary kidney, bilateral tumors). - For **renal pelvis carcinomas**, partial nephrectomy is associated with a higher risk of local recurrence because of the potential for tumor spread within the ureter and multifocal disease. *Chemotherapy and immunotherapy* - **Chemotherapy** (often cisplatin-based) might be used as neoadjuvant or adjuvant therapy for locally advanced or high-risk UTUC, or for metastatic disease. It is not the primary curative treatment for localized disease. - **Immunotherapy** is typically reserved for advanced or metastatic urothelial carcinoma that has progressed after chemotherapy. *Palliative Radiotherapy* - **Radiotherapy** has a limited role in the primary curative treatment of renal pelvis carcinoma. - It is mainly used in a **palliative setting** for symptom control (e.g., bone metastases, local pain) in advanced or metastatic disease, not for localized, resectable tumors.
Question 60: Which of the following is NOT a principle of negative pressure wound therapy?
- A. Macrodeformation of the wound
- B. Decreased edema
- C. Stabilization of wound environment
- D. Clearance of infection (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Clearance of infection*** - While negative pressure wound therapy (NPWT) can help manage heavily colonized wounds by removing exudate and reducing bacterial burden, it is **not a primary treatment for active infection**. - **Systemic antibiotics** or local antiseptics are required to truly clear an infection, as NPWT alone cannot eliminate deep-seated pathogens. *Stabilization of wound environment* - NPWT helps to **stabilize the wound bed** by holding it in place, protecting it from external contamination and mechanical stress. - This creates an optimal environment for **wound healing** by preventing disruption of newly formed granulation tissue. *Macrodeformation of the wound* - The negative pressure applied to the wound surface causes the wound edges to be drawn together, leading to **macrodeformation**. - This effect reduces wound size and promotes **epithelialization** and **wound contraction**. *Decreased edema* - NPWT actively removes **excess interstitial fluid** and exudate from the wound bed, leading to a significant reduction in edema. - This reduction in swelling improves **perfusion** to the wound tissues and promotes better healing.