NEET-PG 2015 — Pediatrics
37 Previous Year Questions with Answers & Explanations
Newborns typically lose how much weight in the first week?
Which of the following is not found in DiGeorge's syndrome?
What is the typical lifespan of neonatal red blood cells (RBCs)?
At what age group is Streptococcus pneumoniae pneumonia most commonly observed?
Which of the following statements about the differences between human milk and cow milk is NOT true?
Which of the following statements about development milestones at 6 months of age is incorrect?
At what age do children typically begin to use past and present tense in their speech?
All of the following are clinical features suggestive of tracheoesophageal fistula except -
At what age does stranger anxiety typically develop in infants?
What is the average weight gain of the neonate per day after the initial weight loss period?
NEET-PG 2015 - Pediatrics NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: Newborns typically lose how much weight in the first week?
- A. 5-10% (Correct Answer)
- B. 1-2%
- C. 11-15%
- D. 15-20%
Explanation: ***5-10%*** - **Physiologic weight loss** of 5-10% of birth weight is normal in newborns during the first week of life. - This loss is primarily due to the **mobilization of extracellular fluid** and delayed onset of full milk production (lactogenesis). - Most infants regain their birth weight by **10-14 days** of age. *1-2%* - A weight loss of only 1-2% in the first week would be **less than expected** and might suggest the infant is retaining excess fluid. - While not necessarily pathological, it's at the **lower end of the normal range** and less typical than the 5-10% range. *11-15%* - A weight loss greater than **10%** is generally considered **excessive** and indicates inadequate feeding or possible dehydration. - Weight loss of 11-15% typically requires **closer monitoring**, feeding assessment, and possible lactation support or supplementation. *15-20%* - A weight loss of 15-20% is significantly **above the normal physiological range** and represents a serious concern for **severe dehydration** or inadequate nutritional intake. - This degree of weight loss would warrant **immediate medical evaluation** and intervention, including possible hospitalization.
Question 2: Which of the following is not found in DiGeorge's syndrome?
- A. Eczema (Correct Answer)
- B. Tetany
- C. T cell lymphopenia
- D. Mucocutaneous candidiasis
Explanation: ***Eczema*** - **Eczema** is NOT a recognized feature of **DiGeorge syndrome** (22q11.2 deletion syndrome). - While individuals with immunodeficiencies may experience various skin conditions, eczema is specifically associated with conditions like **Hyper-IgE syndrome, Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome**, or atopic disorders, not DiGeorge's. - DiGeorge's follows the **CATCH-22 mnemonic**: Cardiac defects, Abnormal facies, Thymic hypoplasia, Cleft palate, Hypocalcemia, 22q11 deletion. *Tetany* - **Tetany IS found** in DiGeorge's syndrome due to **hypocalcemia** from parathyroid gland hypoplasia or aplasia. - The lack of parathyroid hormone leads to **low serum calcium levels**, resulting in increased neuromuscular excitability and tetany. *T cell lymphopenia* - **T-cell lymphopenia IS found** in DiGeorge's syndrome due to **thymic hypoplasia or aplasia**. - The primary immunological defect is **T-cell deficiency**, leading to increased susceptibility to viral, fungal, and intracellular bacterial infections. - B-cell numbers are typically normal, though antibody responses may be impaired due to lack of T-cell help. *Mucocutaneous candidiasis* - **This IS found** in patients with DiGeorge's syndrome as an opportunistic infection due to **T-cell immunodeficiency**. - The impaired **cellular immunity** makes individuals highly susceptible to fungal infections like *Candida albicans* affecting mucous membranes and skin.
Question 3: What is the typical lifespan of neonatal red blood cells (RBCs)?
- A. 120-150 days
- B. 150-200 days
- C. 60-90 days (Correct Answer)
- D. 90-120 days
Explanation: ***60-90 days*** - The typical lifespan of **neonatal red blood cells (RBCs)** is **60-90 days**, which is **shorter than adult RBCs** (120 days). - This reduced lifespan is due to **increased membrane fragility**, **higher metabolic rate**, and **immature enzyme systems** in neonatal erythrocytes. - Neonatal RBCs contain more **fetal hemoglobin (HbF)** and have structural differences that contribute to their shorter survival. - This shorter lifespan contributes to the **physiological anemia of infancy** seen in the first few months of life. *90-120 days* - This range represents the typical lifespan of **adult RBCs**, not neonatal RBCs. - Neonatal RBCs have a **demonstrably shorter lifespan** compared to adult erythrocytes. - Confusing adult and neonatal RBC lifespans is a common error in clinical practice. *120-150 days* - This range is **longer than even adult RBC lifespan** (typically 120 days). - This would be **highly atypical** for any normal erythrocyte population. *150-200 days* - This represents an **abnormally prolonged** RBC lifespan not seen in normal physiology. - Such extended survival would suggest **pathological conditions** affecting RBC destruction or measurement error.
Question 4: At what age group is Streptococcus pneumoniae pneumonia most commonly observed?
- A. < 5 years (Correct Answer)
- B. 5 - 15 years
- C. 20 - 25 years
- D. 30 - 40 years
Explanation: ***< 5 years*** - *Streptococcus pneumoniae* pneumonia is particularly common and severe in **young children**, especially those under the age of 5, due to their developing immune systems. - This age group has a higher incidence of **invasive pneumococcal disease**, including pneumonia and meningitis, making vaccination crucial. *5 - 15 years* - While pneumonia can occur in this age group, it is **less common** than in very young children or older adults. - The immune system is generally more developed and effective at this age, leading to a **lower incidence** of severe pneumococcal infections. *20 - 25 years* - This age group generally has a robust immune system, making *Streptococcus pneumoniae* pneumonia **uncommon** unless there are underlying risk factors such as immunocompromise or chronic medical conditions. - Most cases of pneumonia in young adults are often due to **viral pathogens** or *Mycoplasma pneumoniae*. *30 - 40 years* - Similar to the 20-25 years age group, incidence of *Streptococcus pneumoniae* pneumonia remains **relatively low** in healthy individuals in their 30s and 40s. - Increased risk is typically associated with **chronic illnesses**, smoking, or conditions that weaken the immune system.
Question 5: Which of the following statements about the differences between human milk and cow milk is NOT true?
- A. Cow milk has comparatively more protein than human milk.
- B. Cow milk has comparatively more calcium than human milk.
- C. Cow milk has comparatively more casein than human milk.
- D. Cow milk has comparatively more fat than human milk. (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Cow milk has comparatively more fat than human milk.*** - This statement is **incorrect** and is the answer to this "NOT true" question. Human milk generally has a **higher fat content** (3.5-4.5 g/100mL) than cow milk (~3.5 g/100mL), which is crucial for the rapid neurological development of infants. - The fat in human milk is also more **bioavailable** due to the presence of lipases, aiding digestion and absorption. - Human milk contains essential **long-chain polyunsaturated fatty acids (LCPUFAs)** like DHA and ARA that support brain and retinal development. *Cow milk has comparatively more protein than human milk.* - This statement is **true**. Cow milk contains significantly **more protein** (~3.3 g/100mL) compared to human milk (~1.0 g/100mL), particularly **casein protein**. - While more protein might seem beneficial, the higher protein load in cow milk is harder for an **infant's immature kidneys** to process and increases renal solute load. *Cow milk has comparatively more calcium than human milk.* - This statement is **true**. Cow milk contains approximately **120 mg/100mL calcium** compared to human milk which has about **30 mg/100mL**. - However, the **bioavailability** of calcium and the optimal calcium-to-phosphorus ratio in human milk favor better absorption despite the lower absolute amount. *Cow milk has comparatively more casein than human milk.* - This statement is **true**. Cow milk has a **casein-to-whey ratio of 80:20**, while human milk has a ratio of approximately **40:60** (more whey). - The predominance of whey proteins in human milk makes it easier to digest, forming softer curds in the infant's stomach.
Question 6: Which of the following statements about development milestones at 6 months of age is incorrect?
- A. Watching self in mirror
- B. Pincer grasp (Correct Answer)
- C. Sitting in tripod position
- D. Monosyllable sounds
Explanation: ***Pincer grasp*** - The **pincer grasp** (using the index finger and thumb to pick up small objects) typically develops much later, usually around **9-12 months** of age. - At 6 months, infants are usually developing a **palmar grasp** or raking motion, not the fine motor control required for a pincer grasp. - This milestone is **NOT expected at 6 months**, making this the incorrect statement. *Watching self in mirror* - By 6 months, infants typically show **interest in their own reflection** and will watch themselves in a mirror, often smiling or vocalizing at the image. - This is a normal social-emotional milestone at this age. *Sitting in tripod position* - Many 6-month-old infants are able to sit with support, and often begin to sit independently for short periods, frequently using their arms for stability in a **tripod position**. - This is a common and expected gross motor milestone at this age. *Monosyllable sounds* - Around 6 months, infants commonly start to produce **monosyllable sounds** like "ba-ba," "da-da," or "ma-ma," as part of their early babbling. - This is a normal and expected language development milestone.
Question 7: At what age do children typically begin to use past and present tense in their speech?
- A. 18 Months
- B. 1 Year
- C. 2 Years
- D. 30 Months (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***30 Months*** - Around 30 months (2.5 years), children typically begin to comprehend and produce **simple past and present tense forms**. - This stage reflects an increased understanding of **time concepts** and more complex grammatical structures. *1 Year* - At 1 year, children are usually at the **single-word stage**, using vocabulary like 'mama' or 'dada'. - They are primarily focused on **naming objects and people**, with little to no grasp of verb tenses. *2 Years* - By 2 years, children are generally using **two-word phrases** and beginning to combine words into simple sentences. - While they are expanding their vocabulary, consistent use of distinct past and present tenses is still developing. *18 Months* - Children at 18 months are typically expanding their **single-word vocabulary** and may be starting to use two-word combinations. - Their language is still focused on immediate needs and objects, without the grammatical complexity of verb tenses.
Question 8: All of the following are clinical features suggestive of tracheoesophageal fistula except -
- A. Fever (Correct Answer)
- B. Choking and Coughing
- C. Regurgitation
- D. Cyanosis
Explanation: ***Fever*** - **Fever is NOT a primary clinical feature** of tracheoesophageal fistula (TEF) itself. - While fever might occur as a **complication** if aspiration pneumonia develops, it is not a direct presenting sign of TEF. - The classic presentation of TEF occurs in **newborns within hours of birth** and involves the "3 Cs" - not fever. *Choking and Coughing* - Part of the classic **"3 Cs" triad** (Choking, Coughing, Cyanosis) of TEF presentation. - Occurs during the **first feeding attempt** when milk enters the trachea through the abnormal fistulous connection. - This is a **cardinal diagnostic feature** that should immediately raise suspicion for TEF. *Regurgitation* - **Immediate regurgitation** of feeds is characteristic, especially in TEF with esophageal atresia (most common type - Type C). - The **blind-ending proximal esophageal pouch** prevents normal passage of saliva and feeds, causing regurgitation. - Often accompanied by **excessive drooling and frothy secretions** from the mouth and nose. *Cyanosis* - The third component of the **"3 Cs" triad** and a key clinical feature. - Results from **aspiration of feeds or saliva** into the trachea and lungs, causing acute respiratory distress. - May also occur from **laryngospasm** as a protective reflex when fluid enters the airway.
Question 9: At what age does stranger anxiety typically develop in infants?
- A. 3 months
- B. 4 months
- C. 7 months (Correct Answer)
- D. 11 months
Explanation: ***7 months*** - **Stranger anxiety** typically emerges around **6-8 months** of age, peaking around 9-12 months. - This developmental stage reflects the infant's growing ability to distinguish between familiar and unfamiliar faces and their developing **attachment to primary caregivers**. *3 months* - At 3 months, infants are typically in an earlier stage of social development, primarily focusing on **recognizing primary caregivers** and showing social smiles. - They generally do not exhibit stranger anxiety, as their cognitive and emotional development has not yet reached that milestone. *4 months* - While 4-month-olds are becoming more socially aware and responsive, their **object permanence** and ability to differentiate strangers from familiar faces is still developing. - Therefore, definitive stranger anxiety is typically not observed at this age. *11 months* - By 11 months, stranger anxiety has already developed and is usually **at its peak**, as infants at this age have a well-established sense of who their primary caregivers are. - While stranger anxiety is very prominent at this age, it is not when it typically **develops** (initial emergence), but rather when it is most pronounced.
Question 10: What is the average weight gain of the neonate per day after the initial weight loss period?
- A. 5-10 g
- B. 25-30 g (Correct Answer)
- C. 50-60 g
- D. 100-150 g
Explanation: ***25-30 g*** - After the initial physiological weight loss (typically 5-10% of birth weight in the first few days), healthy term neonates should gain approximately **25-30 grams per day**. - This consistent weight gain indicates adequate feeding and healthy development in the first month of life. *5-10 g* - This range is too low for the average daily weight gain after the initial weight loss period. - A gain of only **5-10 g per day** would suggest inadequate feeding or an underlying medical issue. *50-60 g* - This rate of weight gain is typically seen in **older infants** (e.g., 2-3 months of age) or in cases of catch-up growth, not usually in the immediate neonatal period after initial weight loss. - While rapid growth can occur, 50-60 g/day is above the average for a neonate. *100-150 g* - This is an **excessively high** rate of daily weight gain for a neonate. - Such rapid weight gain is not typical and could potentially indicate measurement error or an unusual metabolic state.