Community Medicine
5 questionsBehavioral surveillance survey is done in?
Drug of choice for mass therapy under filariasis control programme?
Which of the following larvicide is used under urban Malaria Scheme?
In the context of malaria control, when is regular insecticidal spray recommended based on the Annual Parasite Index (API)?
Which condition has the maximum relative risk attributed to obesity?
NEET-PG 2015 - Community Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 841: Behavioral surveillance survey is done in?
- A. AIDS (Correct Answer)
- B. TB
- C. Filaria
- D. Malaria
Explanation: ***AIDS*** - Behavioral surveillance surveys are crucial for understanding and monitoring behaviors related to **HIV transmission**, such as sexual practices and drug use, among at-risk populations. - These surveys help in designing and evaluating **prevention programs** by identifying trends in risky behaviors and knowledge, attitudes, and practices (KAP) concerning HIV. *Filaria* - Surveillance for filaria primarily involves **entomological surveys** (mosquito monitoring) and **parasitological surveys** (blood examinations for microfilariae). - Behavioral aspects are less central to direct surveillance compared to disease vectors and infection rates. *TB* - Tuberculosis surveillance mainly focuses on **case detection**, **treatment outcomes**, and monitoring **drug resistance** through clinical and laboratory data. - While patient adherence to treatment involves behavior, there isn't a dedicated "behavioral surveillance survey" method specifically for TB. *Malaria* - Malaria surveillance involves monitoring **parasitemia rates**, **vector populations**, and **antimalarial drug resistance**. - Behavioral components like bed net usage are important, but the primary surveillance methods are not termed "behavioral surveillance surveys" in the same structured way as for HIV.
Question 842: Drug of choice for mass therapy under filariasis control programme?
- A. Albendazole
- B. Ivermectin
- C. DEC (Correct Answer)
- D. Mebendazole
Explanation: ***Correct: DEC*** - **Diethylcarbamazine (DEC)** is the drug of choice for **mass drug administration (MDA)** campaigns aimed at eliminating lymphatic filariasis. - It effectively kills **microfilariae** and has some action on adult worms, reducing transmission. - In India's National Filariasis Elimination Programme, DEC is administered along with Albendazole in annual MDA campaigns. *Incorrect: Albendazole* - While **Albendazole** is co-administered with DEC in MDA programs, it is not the sole drug of choice for mass treatment of filariasis. - Its primary role is to provide **macrofilaricidal** activity (killing adult worms) and co-treatment for other helminth infections. - It enhances the effect of DEC but is not used alone. *Incorrect: Ivermectin* - **Ivermectin** is used in MDA programs for filariasis, particularly in areas co-endemic with **onchocerciasis** or where **Loa loa** is prevalent (as DEC is contraindicated in these areas). - However, in India and most lymphatic filariasis endemic areas, **DEC** remains the primary drug. *Incorrect: Mebendazole* - **Mebendazole** is an anthelminthic primarily used for treating **intestinal nematode infections** like ascariasis, trichuriasis, and hookworm. - It is **not used** in lymphatic filariasis mass treatment programs.
Question 843: Which of the following larvicide is used under urban Malaria Scheme?
- A. Malathion
- B. Parathion
- C. DDT
- D. Abate (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Abate*** - **Abate (temephos)** is an organophosphate larvicide widely used in public health programs, including the urban malaria scheme, due to its effectiveness against mosquito larvae at low concentrations. - It is applied to water storage containers, wells, and other mosquito breeding sites to **prevent the development of adult mosquitoes**. *Malathion* - **Malathion** is an organophosphate insecticide primarily used as an **adulticide** for fogging operations against adult mosquitoes, not specifically as a larvicide in urban schemes. - While it can kill larvae, its primary application and efficacy are geared towards **adult mosquito control**. *Parathion* - **Parathion** is a highly toxic organophosphate insecticide that is generally **not used in public health programs** due to its significant environmental and human health risks. - Its use is largely restricted to agricultural pest control and is **not a recommended larvicide** for urban settings. *DDT* - **DDT (dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane)** is a persistent organic pollutant whose use has been largely banned or severely restricted globally due to its **environmental impact** and long-term toxicity. - While historically used for mosquito control (both larvae and adults), it is **not used in current urban malaria schemes** due to its banned status in many regions and resistance issues.
Question 844: In the context of malaria control, when is regular insecticidal spray recommended based on the Annual Parasite Index (API)?
- A. < 1
- B. < 2
- C. > 2 (Correct Answer)
- D. > 1
Explanation: ***> 2*** - Regular insecticidal spray, particularly **Indoor Residual Spraying (IRS)**, is a key malaria control measure recommended when the **Annual Parasite Index (API) is greater than 2**. - An API greater than 2 indicates **high endemicity** with a significant burden of malaria transmission in the community, necessitating aggressive vector control strategies. - According to **NVBDCP (National Vector Borne Disease Control Programme) guidelines**, API > 2 defines high-risk areas where routine IRS is implemented as a core intervention. *> 1* - An API between 1-2 represents **moderate endemicity**, where the focus is primarily on **active case detection, prompt treatment, and targeted interventions** rather than universal spraying. - While vector control remains important, routine widespread IRS is not the standard recommendation at this threshold. *< 2* - An API of less than 2 (which includes both moderate and low endemic areas) does not routinely warrant universal insecticidal spraying programs. - In areas with API < 2, **case management, surveillance, and selective vector control** are prioritized over widespread IRS campaigns. *< 1* - An API of less than 1 indicates **low endemicity**, where malaria transmission is minimal and sporadic. - In such areas, **surveillance, prompt case detection and treatment, and targeted interventions** are the mainstay, with IRS reserved only for focal outbreaks or high-risk pockets.
Question 845: Which condition has the maximum relative risk attributed to obesity?
- A. Hypertension
- B. CHD
- C. DM (Correct Answer)
- D. Cancer
Explanation: ***DM*** - Obesity is a major risk factor for Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus (T2DM), with a **relative risk often exceeding 3-7 times that of normal-weight individuals**, and even higher for severe obesity. - The link is primarily due to **insulin resistance** caused by increased adipose tissue. *Hypertension* - Obesity significantly increases the risk of hypertension, with a relative risk typically in the range of **2 to 3 times higher** than normal-weight individuals. - The mechanisms involve increased **blood volume**, **sympathetic nervous system activity**, and **renal sodium reabsorption**. *CHD* - Obesity is a strong independent risk factor for Coronary Heart Disease (CHD), contributing to a relative risk of approximately **1.5 to 2.5 times higher** than normal weight. - It often acts by exacerbating other risk factors like **hypertension**, **dyslipidemia**, and **diabetes**. *Cancer* - Obesity is linked to various cancers, including endometrial, esophageal adenocarcinoma, renal cell, and breast cancer in postmenopausal women, with relative risks typically ranging from **1.2 to 2 times higher** for specific cancers. - The pathways include **chronic inflammation**, altered **hormone levels** (e.g., estrogen), and **insulin-like growth factor signaling**.
Obstetrics and Gynecology
1 questionsWhere is the newborn care corner located?
NEET-PG 2015 - Obstetrics and Gynecology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 841: Where is the newborn care corner located?
- A. NICU
- B. OPD
- C. Labour room (Correct Answer)
- D. Wards side room
Explanation: ***Labour room*** - A **newborn care corner** is an essential facility located in the **labour room** to provide immediate care, resuscitation, and stabilization for newborns right after birth. - This setup ensures that critical interventions like **drying**, **warming**, **suctioning**, and initiation of **ventilation** can be performed promptly, improving neonatal outcomes. *NICU* - The **NICU (Neonatal Intensive Care Unit)** is for sick or premature newborns requiring intensive medical care, not the initial care at birth for all newborns. - While newborns from the labour room may be transferred to the NICU if they require specialized care, the initial care corner is distinct. *OPD* - **OPD (Outpatient Department)** is for patients seeking consultation without admission, and is not equipped or intended for immediate newborn care. - Newborns are brought to OPD for follow-up visits or routine check-ups much later, not immediately after birth. *Wards side room* - A **ward side room** is part of a general hospital ward, usually for inpatient care, and is not specifically designed or staffed for the initial, immediate care of a newborn at the moment of delivery. - While mothers and newborns may be transferred to a ward side room after stabilization, it's not where delivery and immediate postnatal care occur.
Pharmacology
3 questionsMain function of sodium citrate in ORS?
What is the recommended regimen for post-exposure prophylaxis for HIV?
In areas with chloroquine-sensitive P. vivax, what is the preferred drug for treating the blood stages?
NEET-PG 2015 - Pharmacology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 841: Main function of sodium citrate in ORS?
- A. To increase absorption of glucose by cotransport
- B. To correct electrolyte imbalance
- C. To correct Acidosis (Correct Answer)
- D. To correct dehydration
Explanation: ***To correct Acidosis*** - **Sodium citrate** provides a source of **bicarbonate** precursor, which helps to correct the **metabolic acidosis** often associated with severe dehydration and diarrhea. - In the body, citrate is metabolized into bicarbonate, raising the blood pH and counteracting the effects of acidosis. *To increase absorption of glucose by cotransport* - The absorption of glucose and sodium is coupled, meaning the presence of **sodium enhances glucose absorption** through the **SGLT1 cotransporter**. - While sodium is essential for glucose absorption, **citrate's primary role is not this direct cotransport mechanism**. *To correct electrolyte imbalance* - ORS formulations contain various electrolytes like **sodium chloride** and **potassium chloride** to rectify electrolyte imbalances caused by diarrhea. - While sodium citrate contributes to sodium levels, its specific function goes beyond just general electrolyte correction to address the **acid-base balance**. *To correct dehydration* - The overall purpose of ORS is to **rehydrate the patient** by providing fluids and electrolytes, which helps restore circulating volume. - While citrate is a component of ORS, **rehydration also depends on the water and other salts** present in the solution, not solely on citrate.
Question 842: What is the recommended regimen for post-exposure prophylaxis for HIV?
- A. Zidovudine + Lamivudine + Lopinavir/ritonavir for 28 days
- B. Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate + Emtricitabine + Raltegravir for 28 days
- C. Single dose Tenofovir + Emtricitabine + Raltegravir
- D. Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate + Emtricitabine + Dolutegravir for 28 days (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate + Emtricitabine + Dolutegravir for 28 days*** - This is the **current first-line recommended regimen** for **HIV post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP)** according to WHO (2021), CDC, and Indian NACO guidelines. - It includes two **nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs)** and an **integrase strand transfer inhibitor (INSTI)**. - **Dolutegravir** is preferred over Raltegravir due to **superior efficacy, better tolerability, higher barrier to resistance, once-daily dosing**, and fewer drug interactions. - The duration of **28 days** is crucial for effective PEP to cover the window period for potential HIV integration and replication. *Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate + Emtricitabine + Raltegravir for 28 days* - This was the **previous standard PEP regimen** and is still an acceptable alternative if Dolutegravir is contraindicated or unavailable. - Raltegravir requires **twice-daily dosing** compared to Dolutegravir's once-daily regimen, which may affect adherence. - The 28-day duration is correct, but Raltegravir is no longer the first-line INSTI choice in current guidelines. *Single dose Tenofovir + Emtricitabine + Raltegravir* - A **single dose** of these medications is insufficient for **post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP)** as HIV replication needs to be suppressed over an extended period to prevent seroconversion. - PEP typically requires a **28-day course** to be effective. *Zidovudine + Lamivudine + Lopinavir/ritonavir for 28 days* - While this is an older, effective **antiretroviral regimen**, it is **not the preferred first-line PEP regimen** due to a higher incidence of side effects, particularly with zidovudine (anemia, nausea). - Modern guidelines favor regimens with **Tenofovir/Emtricitabine + Dolutegravir** due to better tolerability and superior efficacy.
Question 843: In areas with chloroquine-sensitive P. vivax, what is the preferred drug for treating the blood stages?
- A. Mefloquine
- B. Artesunate
- C. Quinine
- D. Chloroquine (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Correct Option: Chloroquine***- **Chloroquine** remains the **first-line treatment** for **chloroquine-sensitive P. vivax** infections due to its high efficacy and safety profile [1, 2].- It rapidly clears **blood-stage parasites**, alleviating acute symptoms of malaria [3].- In areas where P. vivax remains sensitive, chloroquine is preferred due to low cost, good tolerability, and proven effectiveness [1, 2].*Incorrect Option: Mefloquine*- **Mefloquine** is typically reserved for areas with **chloroquine-resistant P. falciparum** or for prophylaxis in such regions.- Its use is generally avoided when less toxic and equally effective options like chloroquine are available for sensitive strains.- Associated with more neuropsychiatric side effects.*Incorrect Option: Artesunate*- **Artesunate** is an **artemisinin derivative**, primarily used for severe malaria or in areas with **multi-drug resistant P. falciparum**.- While effective, it is not the preferred first-line agent for chloroquine-sensitive P. vivax due to the availability of simpler, equally effective treatments.- Typically used in combination therapy (ACT) for resistant strains.*Incorrect Option: Quinine*- **Quinine** is an older antimalarial, often used for **severe malaria** or in cases of **chloroquine-resistant P. falciparum**.- It has a higher incidence of side effects compared to chloroquine (cinchonism, hypoglycemia) and is not the preferred choice for chloroquine-sensitive P. vivax.- Requires longer treatment duration with more monitoring.
Psychiatry
1 questionsWhat does the term 'Total Communication' refer to in the context of deaf education?
NEET-PG 2015 - Psychiatry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 841: What does the term 'Total Communication' refer to in the context of deaf education?
- A. Utilizing various communication methods for advertising purposes.
- B. Employing multiple communication methods for educational purposes in schools.
- C. Engaging various communication methods for community involvement.
- D. Using all available communication methods to educate a deaf child. (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Using all available communication methods to educate a deaf child.*** - **Total Communication** is an approach in deaf education that emphasizes using all available modalities to facilitate language acquisition and communication for deaf children. - This can include **speech, lip-reading, written language, finger-spelling, and sign language** (such as ASL or Manually Coded English). *Utilizing various communication methods for advertising purposes.* - This option describes a general marketing strategy and is not specific to the educational methods for deaf individuals. - It does not relate to the specific pedagogical approach implied by "Total Communication" in deaf education. *Employing multiple communication methods for educational purposes in schools.* - While this option mentions education and multiple methods, it is too broad and does not specifically address the context of deaf education. - It could refer to general teaching strategies for hearing students rather than the specialized approach for deaf learners. *Engaging various communication methods for community involvement.* - This describes a strategy for public engagement or outreach, not an educational methodology for deaf children. - It does not align with the core principle of Total Communication, which is focused on the individual learning needs of a deaf child.