Anatomy
8 questionsBase of the heart is formed by?
Right border of heart is formed by?
Which of the following statements about the anatomy of the right ventricle is correct?
Superior gluteal nerve does not supply?
Which of the following muscles is not supplied by the femoral nerve?
Which artery is primarily responsible for supplying the head and neck of the femur?
Which structure forms the lateral border of the ischiorectal fossa?
The uterine artery is a branch of which of the following?
NEET-PG 2015 - Anatomy NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 71: Base of the heart is formed by?
- A. Right atrium
- B. Right ventricle
- C. Left atrium (Correct Answer)
- D. Left ventricle
Explanation: ***Left atrium*** - The **left atrium** forms the major part of the **base of the heart**, receiving the four pulmonary veins. [1] - It lies in the posterior-superior aspect of the heart and is separated from the thoracic vertebrae by the **pericardium** and the **esophagus**. *Right atrium* - The **right atrium** forms the right border of the heart and receives deoxygenated blood from the **superior and inferior vena cava**. - It primarily forms part of the **anterior surface** of the heart, not the base. *Right ventricle* - The **right ventricle** forms a large part of the **anterior surface** and inferior border of the heart. - It is responsible for pumping blood to the **pulmonary circulation** but does not form the base. *Left ventricle* - The **left ventricle** forms the **apex** of the heart and much of its **left border** and **diaphragmatic surface**. - Its primary role is to pump oxygenated blood into the **systemic circulation**.
Question 72: Right border of heart is formed by?
- A. Right ventricle
- B. Right atrium (Correct Answer)
- C. SVC
- D. IVC
Explanation: ***Right atrium*** - The **right atrium** forms the major part of the **right border of the heart** as viewed in a posteroanterior (PA) chest X-ray. - Its position is along the right sternal margin, extending from the level of the third costal cartilage superiorly to the sixth costal cartilage inferiorly. *Right ventricle* - The **right ventricle** primarily forms the **anterior surface** and part of the inferior border of the heart. - It contributes minimally, if at all, to the visible right border in a standard PA view. *SVC* - The **superior vena cava (SVC)** drains into the right atrium and is located superior to it. - While it's adjacent to the right border, it does **not form the actual right border of the heart itself**. *IVC* - The **inferior vena cava (IVC)** drains into the right atrium from below. - It is positioned inferiorly and posteriorly, and therefore **does not form the right border** of the heart in a PA view.
Question 73: Which of the following statements about the anatomy of the right ventricle is correct?
- A. TV & PV Share fibrous continuity
- B. More prominent trabeculation
- C. The crista supraventricularis separates the tricuspid and pulmonary valves, and the apex is trabeculated (Correct Answer)
- D. All of the options
Explanation: The crista supraventricularis separates the tricuspid and pulmonary valves, and the apex is trabeculated - The **crista supraventricularis** (also known as the supraventricular crest) is a prominent muscular ridge that separates the **inflow tract** (tricuspid valve region) from the **outflow tract** (pulmonary valve region) in the right ventricle. - The **apex and trabecular portion** of the right ventricle contains prominent **trabeculae carneae**, which are irregular muscular ridges and columns. - This option is correct as it describes two key anatomical features: the structural separator between valves and the trabeculated apex. *TV & PV Share fibrous continuity* - This statement is **anatomically incorrect** for the right ventricle. - The **tricuspid valve** and **pulmonary valve** do NOT share fibrous continuity; they are separated by the **crista supraventricularis** (muscular ridge). - **Fibrous continuity** (mitral-aortic continuity) is a characteristic feature of the **left heart**, where the anterior mitral leaflet is continuous with the aortic valve, but this does NOT occur in the right ventricle. *More prominent trabeculation* - While this statement is **anatomically true** (the right ventricle has more prominent trabeculation than the left ventricle, which has a smoother wall), this option is **incomplete** when compared to the correct answer. - The question asks for the correct statement about right ventricle anatomy, and option 3 provides a **more comprehensive description** that includes both a unique structural landmark (crista supraventricularis) and the trabeculation feature. - In single-best-answer format, the most complete and specific option is preferred. *All of the options* - This option is incorrect because the statement "TV & PV Share fibrous continuity" is anatomically false. - Since not all options are correct, this cannot be the answer.
Question 74: Superior gluteal nerve does not supply?
- A. Tensor fasciae latae
- B. Gluteus medius
- C. Gluteus minimus
- D. Gluteus maximus (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Gluteus maximus*** - The **gluteus maximus** muscle is primarily innervated by the **inferior gluteal nerve** (L5, S1, S2), not the superior gluteal nerve. - Its main actions include **extension** and **external rotation** of the hip. *Tensor fasciae latae* - The **tensor fasciae latae** is innervated by the **superior gluteal nerve** (L4, L5, S1). - This muscle helps in **flexion**, **abduction**, and **internal rotation** of the hip. *Gluteus medius* - The **gluteus medius** muscle receives its innervation from the **superior gluteal nerve** (L4, L5, S1). - It is a primary **abductor** and **internal rotator** of the hip, crucial for pelvic stability. *Gluteus minimus* - The **gluteus minimus** is also innervated by the **superior gluteal nerve** (L4, L5, S1). - Its functions are similar to the gluteus medius, including **abduction** and **internal rotation** of the hip.
Question 75: Which of the following muscles is not supplied by the femoral nerve?
- A. Pectineus
- B. Sartorius
- C. Vastus medialis
- D. Obturator externus (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Obturator externus*** - The **obturator externus** muscle is primarily supplied by the **obturator nerve** (L3-L4), which arises from the lumbar plexus, not the femoral nerve. - Its main function is the **lateral rotation of the thigh** at the hip joint. *Pectineus* - The **pectineus** muscle receives dual innervation, typically from both the **femoral nerve** (L2-L4) and the obturator nerve. - It aids in **adduction**, **flexion**, and **medial rotation** of the thigh. *Sartorius* - The **sartorius** muscle is entirely supplied by the **femoral nerve** (L2-L3). - It is responsible for **flexing, abducting, and laterally rotating the thigh** at the hip, and flexing the leg at the knee. *Vastus medialis* - The **vastus medialis** is one of the four muscles forming the quadriceps femoris group, all of which are exclusively supplied by the **femoral nerve** (L2-L4). - This muscle is crucial for **extending the leg** at the knee joint.
Question 76: Which artery is primarily responsible for supplying the head and neck of the femur?
- A. Medial circumflex artery (Correct Answer)
- B. Obturator artery
- C. Lateral circumflex artery
- D. Profunda femoris artery
Explanation: ***Medial circumflex artery*** - The **medial circumflex artery** is the primary blood supply to the **femoral head and neck** in adults. - Its branches, particularly the **retinacular arteries**, ascend along the femoral neck to perfuse the head. *Lateral circumflex artery* - The **lateral circumflex artery** supplies the **vastus lateralis muscle** and contributes to the supply of the **greater trochanter**. - While it anastomoses with the medial circumflex artery, its direct contribution to the femoral head is minimal. *Profunda femoris artery* - The **profunda femoris artery**, or deep femoral artery, is the main arterial supply to the **thigh muscles**. - It gives rise to the medial and lateral circumflex femoral arteries but does not directly supply the femoral head. *Obturator artery* - The **obturator artery** primarily supplies the **adductor muscles** of the thigh and contributes branches to the hip joint capsule. - While it has a small branch (artery to the head of the femur) that may contribute to the femoral head in children, it is not the main source in adults.
Question 77: Which structure forms the lateral border of the ischiorectal fossa?
- A. Perineal membrane
- B. Obturator internus muscle (Correct Answer)
- C. Gluteus maximus
- D. Sacrotuberous ligament
Explanation: ***Obturator internus muscle*** - The **ischiorectal fossa** (also known as the **ischioanal fossa**) is a wedge-shaped space in the perineum, and its lateral wall is formed by the **obturator internus muscle** and its covering fascia [1]. - This muscle originates from the inner surface of the **obturator membrane** and the surrounding bone, descending through the lesser sciatic foramen to insert on the greater trochanter of the femur. *Perineal membrane* - The **perineal membrane** is a dense fibrous sheet that forms the inferior boundary of the **deep perineal pouch**. - It does not form a lateral border of the ischiorectal fossa but rather contributes to the floor of the **urogenital triangle**, anterior to the fossa. *Gluteus maximus* - The **gluteus maximus** is a large muscle of the buttock, primarily involved in extension and lateral rotation of the hip. - It lies superficial to the structures of the perineum and therefore does not form a boundary of the **ischiorectal fossa**. *Sacrotuberous ligament* - The **sacrotuberous ligament** is a strong fibrous band connecting the sacrum to the ischial tuberosity. - While it helps to define the boundaries of the **perineum** posteriorly and contributes to the stability of the **sacroiliac joint**, it does not form the lateral wall of the **ischiorectal fossa**.
Question 78: The uterine artery is a branch of which of the following?
- A. Left common iliac artery
- B. Internal iliac artery (Correct Answer)
- C. Internal pudendal artery
- D. Ovarian artery
Explanation: ***Internal iliac artery*** - The **uterine artery** is a direct branch of the **internal iliac artery**, specifically its anterior division, which supplies blood to the uterus [1]. - This artery is crucial for maintaining the vascular supply to the uterus, especially during pregnancy. *Left common iliac artery* - The **common iliac artery** bifurcates into the **internal iliac artery** and the **external iliac artery** [2]; it is not a direct source of the uterine artery. - The common iliac artery is a more proximal vessel in the arterial tree. *Internal pudendal artery* - The **internal pudendal artery** is also a branch of the **internal iliac artery**, but it primarily supplies the perineum and external genitalia, not the uterus. - It is often associated with structures such as the clitoris, labia, and structures of the anal triangle. *Ovarian artery* - The **ovarian artery** originates directly from the **abdominal aorta**, usually just below the renal arteries, and supplies the ovaries [2]. - Although it supplies the reproductive system, it is distinct from the uterine artery's origin and primary territory.
Orthopaedics
2 questionsWhat is the characteristic upper limb deformity seen in Erb's palsy?
Which ligament is most commonly damaged in knee injuries?
NEET-PG 2015 - Orthopaedics NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 71: What is the characteristic upper limb deformity seen in Erb's palsy?
- A. Adduction and lateral rotation of arm
- B. Adduction and medial rotation of arm (Correct Answer)
- C. Abduction and lateral rotation of arm
- D. Abduction and medial rotation of arm
Explanation: ***Adduction and medial rotation of arm*** - Erb's palsy, resulting from injury to the **upper brachial plexus** (C5-C6 nerve roots), primarily affects the **deltoid**, **supraspinatus**, **infraspinatus**, and **biceps** muscles. - The unopposed action of unaffected muscles, such as the **pectoris major** and **latissimus dorsi**, leads to the characteristic **waiter's tip position**, involving **adduction** and **medial rotation** of the arm. *Adduction and lateral rotation of arm* - This position would imply weakness of the **pectoralis major** and **latissimus dorsi** and stronger activity of the **infraspinatus** and **teres minor**, which is contrary to the muscle deficits in Erb's palsy. - **Lateral rotation** of the arm is typically impaired in Erb's palsy due to weakness of the **infraspinatus** and **teres minor**. *Abduction and lateral rotation of arm* - **Abduction** is severely impacted in Erb's palsy due to paralysis of the **deltoid** and **supraspinatus**. - This position would suggest intact function of muscles that are explicitly weakened or paralyzed in Erb's palsy. *Abduction and medial rotation of arm* - While **medial rotation** can be a component of the deformity, **abduction** is a movement that is significantly impaired in Erb's palsy, making this option incorrect. - The inability to abduct the arm is a hallmark of the condition due to weakness of the **deltoid** and **supraspinatus**.
Question 72: Which ligament is most commonly damaged in knee injuries?
- A. PCL
- B. LCL
- C. MCL
- D. ACL (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***ACL*** - The **anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)** is highly susceptible to injury, especially during sports involving sudden stops, changes in direction, jumping, and awkward landings. - Its role in stabilizing the knee against **anterior tibial translation** and rotational forces makes it vulnerable to tears. *PCL* - The **posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)** is much stronger than the ACL and less frequently injured, typically requiring a direct blow to the flexed knee (e.g., dashboard injury). - It prevents **posterior tibial translation** relative to the femur. *MCL* - The **medial collateral ligament (MCL)** is commonly injured, often due to a direct blow to the outside of the knee causing a **valgus stress**. - While frequently damaged, it is often injured in conjunction with the ACL but the ACL is more frequently injured in isolation. *LCL* - The **lateral collateral ligament (LCL)** is the least commonly injured of the four major knee ligaments. - It usually results from a direct blow to the inside of the knee causing **varus stress**.