Community Medicine
1 questionsPneumonic plague is spread by:
NEET-PG 2015 - Community Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 601: Pneumonic plague is spread by:
- A. Direct contact with infected tissue
- B. Bite of infected flea
- C. Ingestion of contaminated food
- D. Droplet infection (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Correct: Droplet infection*** - Pneumonic plague is a severe form of plague that affects the **lungs** and is transmitted through **respiratory droplets** expelled by an infected person or animal during coughing or sneezing. - This direct person-to-person transmission distinguishes it from other forms of plague. - It is the **only form of plague** that can spread directly from human to human without an animal or flea vector. *Incorrect: Bite of infected flea* - This is the primary mode of transmission for **bubonic plague**, where the bacterium *Yersinia pestis* is transmitted from rodents to humans via infected fleas. - While bubonic plague can progress to pneumonic plague, the initial transmission route for the pneumonic form itself is not flea bites. *Incorrect: Direct contact with infected tissue* - Direct contact with infected tissues or fluids can lead to **septicemic plague** or sometimes bubonic plague, especially in cases where there is a break in the skin. - This is not the typical or primary route for the spread of pneumonic plague, which is respiratory. *Incorrect: Ingestion of contaminated food* - Ingestion of contaminated food or water is a route for various **gastrointestinal infections** and diseases like salmonella or cholera. - It is not a known or common method for the transmission of any form of plague, including pneumonic plague.
Forensic Medicine
3 questionsWhich type of poison is known to cause the most severe damage to body tissues upon contact or ingestion?
The absorption elution technique is used for?
What test is used to detect the presence of semen in the vaginal secretions of a rape victim?
NEET-PG 2015 - Forensic Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 601: Which type of poison is known to cause the most severe damage to body tissues upon contact or ingestion?
- A. Irritant poison
- B. Corrosive poison (Correct Answer)
- C. Alcohol
- D. Opioid
Explanation: ***Corrosive poison*** - **Corrosive poisons** cause severe damage by acting directly on tissues, leading to **chemical burns**, protein denaturation, and cell death. - They produce immediate and visible destruction upon contact, such as perforation of the esophagus or stomach, which is typically more severe than irritation. *Irritant poison* - **Irritant poisons** cause inflammation and redness but generally do not lead to the same extent of tissue destruction as corrosives. - While they can cause discomfort and damage, their effects are usually concentrated on the superficial layers of tissue. *Alcohol* - **Alcohol (ethanol)** primarily acts as a central nervous system depressant and can cause organ damage over time with chronic use, but its immediate tissue-damaging effects are not as severe as corrosives. - Acute alcohol intoxication primarily affects neurological and systemic functions, not direct tissue corrosion. *Opioid* - **Opioids** primarily exert their toxic effects by binding to opioid receptors in the brain, causing respiratory depression, sedation, and a decreased level of consciousness. - They do not cause direct, severe tissue damage upon contact or ingestion in the way corrosive substances do.
Question 602: The absorption elution technique is used for?
- A. Detection of blood groups (Correct Answer)
- B. Examination of seminal stains
- C. Detection of species
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Detection of blood groups*** - The **absorption-elution technique** is a sensitive method used to detect **ABO blood group antigens** in dried bloodstains, a common application in forensic serology. - It involves absorbing antibodies specific to blood group antigens onto the dried stain and then eluting these absorbed antibodies to react with known red blood cells. *Examination of seminal stains* - **Seminal stains** are typically examined for the presence of **spermatozoa** or markers like **prostate-specific antigen (PSA)** or **acid phosphatase**. - The absorption-elution technique is not the primary method for identifying seminal fluid or its origin. *Detection of species* - **Species identification** in forensic samples usually involves techniques such as **DNA analysis** (e.g., mitochondrial DNA sequencing) or **precipitin tests**. - The absorption-elution method is specific to blood group antigens and not generally used for broad species differentiation. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because the **absorption-elution technique** is indeed directly applicable and commonly used for the **detection of blood groups**.
Question 603: What test is used to detect the presence of semen in the vaginal secretions of a rape victim?
- A. Methylene blue staining
- B. Acid phosphatase test (Correct Answer)
- C. Benzidine test
- D. Lugol's iodine test
Explanation: ***Acid phosphatase test*** - The **acid phosphatase test** is used to detect the presence of **spermatozoa** in vaginal secretions by identifying the prostatic enzyme **acid phosphatase**, which is a component of semen. - A positive result indicates recent sexual intercourse and is crucial in **forensic investigations** of sexual assault. *Methylene blue staining* - **Methylene blue staining** is commonly used to visualize cells and bacteria in various samples, particularly for identifying **bacterial vaginosis** via clue cells. - It is not specifically used for the detection of semen or spermatozoa in sexual assault cases. *Lugol's iodine test* - **Lugol's iodine** is primarily used to detect **glycogen** in cervical cells during a Schiller test, which helps identify abnormal or cancerous cells. - It is not a standard test for detecting the presence of semen in sexual assault investigations. *Benzidine test* - The **benzidine test** was historically used as a preliminary test for the presence of **blood** by detecting hemoglobin. - However, due to its **carcinogenic properties**, it has largely been replaced by safer and more specific tests for blood detection.
Internal Medicine
1 questionsEschar is seen in all the Rickettsial diseases except:
NEET-PG 2015 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 601: Eschar is seen in all the Rickettsial diseases except:
- A. Scrub typhus
- B. Rickettsial pox
- C. Indian tick typhus
- D. Endemic typhus (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Endemic typhus*** - **Endemic typhus**, caused by *Rickettsia typhi*, is transmitted by **fleas** and typically presents without an eschar. - The disease is characterized by fever, headache, and a maculopapular rash, but the **inoculation site lesion (eschar) is rare or absent**. *Scrub typhus* - **Scrub typhus**, caused by *Orientia tsutsugamushi*, is known for causing a prominent **eschar** [1] at the site of the **chigger mite bite**. - This **painless black scab** is a classic diagnostic feature of the disease [1]. *Rickettsial pox* - **Rickettsial pox**, caused by *Rickettsia akari*, almost invariably presents with an **eschar**, often referred to as an **inoculation lesion**. - This lesion appears as a papule that vesiculates and then forms a scab, indicating the site of the **mite bite**. *Indian tick typhus* - **Indian tick typhus** (part of the **spotted fever group rickettsioses**), caused by *Rickettsia conorii*, frequently presents with a characteristic **eschar** at the site of the **tick bite**. - This eschar, known as a **tache noire**, is a valuable diagnostic clue in affected patients.
Microbiology
4 questionsWhich type of DNase produced by Streptococcus is known to be the most antigenic in humans?
Proteus isolated from a patient of UTI will show which biochemical reaction.
What is the most sensitive test for diagnosing syphilis?
Most common site for Staphylococcus carriage?
NEET-PG 2015 - Microbiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 601: Which type of DNase produced by Streptococcus is known to be the most antigenic in humans?
- A. DNase C
- B. DNase D
- C. DNase A
- D. DNase B (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***DNase B*** - **DNase B** is the most **antigenic** of the four DNases (A, B, C, D) produced by *Streptococcus pyogenes*. - Antibodies against DNase B are commonly measured as anti-DNase B titers in the diagnosis of **streptococcal infections** and their sequelae, like **acute rheumatic fever** and **post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis**, especially when ASO titers are negative. *DNase A* - While *Streptococcus pyogenes* produces **DNase A**, it is not considered the most antigenically potent or clinically relevant for antibody testing in humans. - Its antigenicity is generally **lower** than that of DNase B in response to streptococcal infection. *DNase C* - **DNase C** is another deoxyribonuclease produced by *Streptococcus pyogenes*. - Similar to DNase A, it does not elicit as strong or as consistent an **antibody response** in human infections compared to DNase B. *DNase D* - **DNase D** is the fourth type of deoxyribonuclease produced by *Streptococcus pyogenes*. - Its **antigenicity** in humans is less pronounced and less diagnostically significant than that of **DNase B**.
Question 602: Proteus isolated from a patient of UTI will show which biochemical reaction.
- A. Production of phenylpyruvic acid from phenylalanine (Correct Answer)
- B. Hydrolysis of esculin in bile
- C. Sensitivity to colchicine
- D. Sensitivity to bacitracin
Explanation: ***Production of phenylpyruvic acid from phenylalanine*** - *Proteus* species possess the enzyme **phenylalanine deaminase**, which deaminates phenylalanine to **phenylpyruvic acid**. - This reaction is a **key biochemical test** used to identify *Proteus*, *Providencia*, and *Morganella* species. *Hydrolysis of esculin in bile* - This reaction is characteristic of **Group D streptococci** and **enterococci**, not *Proteus* species. - The organism hydrolyzes **esculin** in the presence of bile, turning the agar black. *Sensitivity to colchicine* - **Colchicine** is an anti-inflammatory drug, not part of standard **biochemical identification tests** for bacteria. - This is not a recognized biochemical reaction used to identify *Proteus* or any bacterial species. *Sensitivity to bacitracin* - **Bacitracin sensitivity** is primarily used to differentiate **Group A streptococci** (e.g., *Streptococcus pyogenes*) from other beta-hemolytic streptococci. - It is an **antibiotic susceptibility test**, not a biochemical reaction characteristic of *Proteus* species.
Question 603: What is the most sensitive test for diagnosing syphilis?
- A. VDRL
- B. RPR
- C. TP-PA
- D. FTA-ABS (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***FTA-ABS*** - The **fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption (FTA-ABS)** test is a treponemal test that is highly sensitive (>95%) and specific for detecting antibodies to *Treponema pallidum*. - It was traditionally considered the gold standard confirmatory test and is often used to confirm positive screening results. - It detects antibodies early in infection and remains positive for life, even after successful treatment. - **Note:** Modern treponemal tests like TP-PA have comparable sensitivity, but FTA-ABS remains widely recognized in clinical practice. *VDRL* - The **Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL)** test is a non-treponemal test that measures antibodies to cardiolipin, a lipid released from damaged host cells and *T. pallidum*. - While useful for screening and monitoring treatment response (titers decrease with successful treatment), it is less sensitive than treponemal tests, especially in early primary and late/tertiary syphilis. - Can yield false positives in various conditions (pregnancy, autoimmune diseases, infections). *TP-PA* - The **Treponema pallidum particle agglutination (TP-PA)** test is a highly sensitive and specific treponemal test that detects antibodies to *T. pallidum*. - It has sensitivity comparable to FTA-ABS (>95%) and is increasingly preferred in modern laboratories due to easier performance and objective reading. - Like other treponemal tests, it remains positive for life. *RPR* - The **rapid plasma reagin (RPR)** test is a non-treponemal test similar to VDRL, detecting antibodies to cardiolipin. - It is commonly used for screening due to ease of use and ability to monitor treatment response through quantitative titers. - Like VDRL, it has lower sensitivity compared to treponemal tests and can produce false positives.
Question 604: Most common site for Staphylococcus carriage?
- A. Skin
- B. Nose (Correct Answer)
- C. Oropharynx
- D. Perineum
Explanation: ***Nose*** - The **anterior nares** are the most common site for **Staphylococcus aureus** colonization in healthy individuals. - Nasal carriage is a significant risk factor for subsequent **Staphylococcus aureus infections**, both self-acquired and transmitted to others. *Skin* - While Staphylococcus aureus can colonize the skin, especially in areas like the axillae and groin, it is **less common** as a primary carrier site compared to the nose. - Skin colonization often occurs due to spread from **nasal carriage**. *Oropharynx* - The oropharynx can be colonized by various bacteria, but it is **not the primary or most common site** for Staphylococcus aureus carriage. - Other bacteria like **Streptococcus species** are more prevalent colonizers of the oropharynx. *Perineum* - The perineum can harbor Staphylococcus aureus, particularly in specific populations or in individuals with certain skin conditions, but it is **not the most common or primary site** of colonization. - Colonization here is often **secondary** to nasal carriage or contact with contaminated surfaces.
Psychiatry
1 questionsWhich term describes the sexual gratification obtained from enemas?
NEET-PG 2015 - Psychiatry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 601: Which term describes the sexual gratification obtained from enemas?
- A. Exhibitionism
- B. Frotteurism
- C. Klismaphilia (Correct Answer)
- D. Fetishism
Explanation: ***Klismaphilia*** - This term specifically refers to a **paraphilia** where an individual experiences **sexual arousal or gratification from enemas**. - It involves the use of enemas for purposes beyond their medical indication, for sexual pleasure. *Exhibitionism* - This paraphilia involves experiencing **sexual arousal from exposing one's genitals to an unsuspecting stranger**. - The gratification comes from the shock or surprise of the observer, not from enemas. *Fetishism* - This involves **sexual attraction to inanimate objects or non-genital body parts**. - While it could theoretically involve objects used for enemas, "klismaphilia" specifically describes the act with enemas. *Frotteurism* - This paraphilia is characterized by **sexual gratification from rubbing against or touching a nonconsenting person** in crowded public places. - It does not involve enemas and is instead focused on physical contact without consent.