Biochemistry
2 questionsWhat is the respiratory quotient of carbohydrates?
Fumarate is formed from which amino acid?
NEET-PG 2015 - Biochemistry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 561: What is the respiratory quotient of carbohydrates?
- A. 0.5
- B. 0.8
- C. 0.75
- D. 1 (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Option: 1 (Correct Answer)*** - The **respiratory quotient (RQ)** is the ratio of **carbon dioxide produced to oxygen consumed** during metabolism. - For carbohydrates, complete oxidation yields equal moles of CO2 and O2, resulting in an **RQ of 1.0**. - Example: C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O, giving RQ = 6CO2/6O2 = 1.0 - This value reflects that carbohydrates are highly oxygenated molecules, requiring less external oxygen for their oxidation relative to the CO2 produced. *Option: 0.5* - An RQ of 0.5 is not observed for any major macronutrient during complete oxidation. - This value would imply significantly lower CO2 production relative to O2 consumption, which doesn't match any physiological substrate metabolism. *Option: 0.8* - An RQ of approximately 0.8 is characteristic of a **mixed diet** or the average value sometimes cited for **protein metabolism**. - Protein RQ typically ranges from 0.8-0.85, as proteins require more oxygen for their oxidation compared to the CO2 produced. - The exact RQ can vary depending on the specific amino acids being metabolized. *Option: 0.75* - An RQ around 0.7-0.75 may represent **fat-predominant metabolism** or a mixed diet with fats and carbohydrates. - Pure **fat metabolism** has an RQ of approximately **0.7**, as fats require substantial oxygen for oxidation due to their lower oxygen content relative to carbon and hydrogen. - Fats contain many C-H bonds and few C-O bonds, necessitating more oxygen for complete combustion.
Question 562: Fumarate is formed from which amino acid?
- A. Methionine
- B. Valine
- C. Histidine
- D. Tyrosine (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Tyrosine*** - **Tyrosine** is a **glucogenic and ketogenic amino acid** that is catabolized to acetoacetate and fumarate. - **Fumarate** then enters the **citric acid cycle (Krebs cycle)**, whereas acetoacetate is a ketone body. *Methionine* - **Methionine** is an **essential amino acid** and a precursor for **S-adenosylmethionine (SAM)**, a methyl donor in many reactions. - Its catabolism produces **succinyl CoA**, not fumarate, through a series of steps via propionyl CoA. *Valine* - **Valine** is a **branched-chain amino acid (BCAA)** that is exclusively **glucogenic**. - Its catabolism ultimately leads to the formation of **succinyl CoA**, which can enter the citric acid cycle. *Histidine* - **Histidine** is an **essential amino acid** that is catabolized to **formiminoglutamate (FIGLU)**. - FIGLU is then converted to **glutamate**, which can eventually be deaminated to α-ketoglutarate, a citric acid cycle intermediate, but not directly fumarate.
Forensic Medicine
1 questionsWhat is the most specific sign of antemortem burns?
NEET-PG 2015 - Forensic Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 561: What is the most specific sign of antemortem burns?
- A. Cyanosis of the fingernails
- B. Pugilistic attitude
- C. Heat ruptures
- D. Presence of soot in the respiratory passage (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Presence of soot in the respiratory passage*** - The presence of **soot** in the **trachea, bronchi, and lungs** is a definitive sign of **inhalation during a fire**, indicating the person was alive and breathing when exposed to the fire. - This finding demonstrates **vital reaction** to the fire and is crucial forensic evidence of **antemortem burns** or smoke inhalation. *Cyanosis of the fingernails* - **Cyanosis** indicates **hypoxia** or **poor oxygenation**, which can occur antemortem during a fire but is not specific to burns. - It can also be seen in other conditions leading to death, and its presence does not solely indicate vital reaction to fire. *Pugilistic attitude* - This refers to the **flexion of the limbs** and clenching of fists due to **heat-induced muscle contraction** and protein denaturation. - While common in fire deaths, it is a **postmortem phenomenon** resulting from heat acting on the body, not a sign of life during the fire. *Heat ruptures* - **Heat ruptures** (or heat fractures) are **skin tears** or bone fractures caused by intense heat, often mimicking traumatic injuries. - These are **postmortem artifacts** resulting from tissue expansion and cracking due to heat, and do not indicate vital reaction.
Pharmacology
6 questionsIn patients undergoing INH therapy, which group is least likely to develop neuropathy?
Which of the following combinations does not show synergistic action?
Emtricitabine is a/an:
Emtricitabine is classified as which of the following?
Quinine primarily acts on which stage of the Plasmodium life cycle?
Which of the following is a primary use of Levamisole?
NEET-PG 2015 - Pharmacology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 561: In patients undergoing INH therapy, which group is least likely to develop neuropathy?
- A. Having malnutrition
- B. Alcoholics
- C. Fast acetylators (Correct Answer)
- D. Vitamin B complex deficiency
Explanation: ***Fast acetylators*** - **Fast acetylators** metabolize INH more quickly, leading to lower systemic drug levels and thus a reduced risk of adverse effects like neuropathy. - Neuropathy associated with INH is primarily due to **pyridoxine (vitamin B6) depletion**, which is less pronounced if the drug is rapidly cleared. *Having malnutrition* - **Malnutrition** often involves deficiencies in essential vitamins, including vitamin B6, which is crucial for preventing INH-induced neuropathy. - Patients with poor nutritional status are at a **higher risk** of developing neuropathy during INH therapy due to pre-existing vitamin B6 depletion. *Alcoholics* - **Alcoholism** is strongly associated with deficiencies in various B vitamins, particularly **pyridoxine (vitamin B6)**, due to poor diet and impaired absorption. - This pre-existing deficiency makes alcoholics **highly susceptible** to INH-induced neuropathy. *Vitamin B complex deficiency* - A **deficiency in vitamin B complex**, especially pyridoxine (B6), is a known risk factor for INH-induced neuropathy. - Isoniazid interferes with **pyridoxine metabolism**, and those with pre-existing deficiency are more vulnerable to this adverse effect.
Question 562: Which of the following combinations does not show synergistic action?
- A. Streptomycin plus penicillin
- B. Rifampicin plus dapsone
- C. Penicillin plus tetracycline (Correct Answer)
- D. Penicillin plus sulfonamide
Explanation: ***Penicillin plus tetracycline*** - This combination is generally **antagonistic** or **indifferent**, not synergistic. Penicillin is a cell wall synthesis inhibitor that works best on actively growing bacteria, while tetracycline is a bacteriostatic protein synthesis inhibitor that can reduce bacterial growth, thereby diminishing penicillin's effect. - The combination is usually avoided as the **bacteriostatic action of tetracycline** can counteract the **bactericidal action of penicillin**, leading to reduced efficacy, especially in infections requiring rapid bacterial clearance. *Penicillin plus sulfonamide* - This combination can show synergism in some contexts, particularly as sulfonamides inhibit **folate synthesis**, while penicillin inhibits **cell wall synthesis**. - While not a classic synergistic pair for all infections, their mechanisms of action are distinct, and they can sometimes be used together, although specific synergistic effects are more limited compared to other pairs. *Streptomycin plus penicillin* - This is a classic example of **synergistic action**, particularly in conditions like **enterococcal endocarditis**. - Penicillin damages the bacterial cell wall, allowing **streptomycin** (an aminoglycoside) to more easily penetrate the cell and act on ribosomal targets, leading to enhanced bactericidal effect. *Rifampicin plus dapsone* - This combination is a cornerstone of **multi-drug therapy for leprosy**, demonstrating clear synergy against *Mycobacterium leprae*. - **Rifampicin** inhibits bacterial RNA synthesis, and **dapsone** inhibits folate synthesis, attacking different essential bacterial pathways which, when combined, are more effective and reduce the development of resistance.
Question 563: Emtricitabine is a/an:
- A. Alkylating agent
- B. Mitotic inhibitor
- C. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI) (Correct Answer)
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI)*** - **Emtricitabine** is a synthetic nucleoside analog that inhibits the activity of HIV-1 **reverse transcriptase**, an enzyme essential for viral replication. - It works by being phosphorylated to its active triphosphate form, which then competes with natural deoxycytidine triphosphate for incorporation into the viral DNA, leading to **chain termination**. *Alkylating agent* - **Alkylating agents** are a class of antineoplastic drugs that work by adding an alkyl group to DNA, forming a covalent bond that interferes with DNA replication and transcription. - They are primarily used in **cancer chemotherapy**, not as antiviral agents for HIV. *Mitotic inhibitor* - **Mitotic inhibitors** are drugs that interfere with cell division (mitosis) by targeting microtubules, either inhibiting their polymerization or depolymerization. - These agents are also used in **cancer treatment** to prevent rapidly dividing cells from completing mitosis. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **emtricitabine** clearly belongs to the class of **nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors**.
Question 564: Emtricitabine is classified as which of the following?
- A. Alkylating agent
- B. Antimetabolite
- C. NRTI (Correct Answer)
- D. Integrase Inhibitor
Explanation: ***NRTI*** - Emtricitabine is a **nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI)**, a class of antiretroviral drugs used in the treatment of **HIV infection**. - As an NRTI, it works by inhibiting the enzyme **reverse transcriptase**, which is crucial for the HIV virus to replicate its RNA into DNA. *Alkylating agent* - Alkylating agents are a type of **chemotherapy drug** that kill cancer cells by damaging their DNA. - They are primarily used in **cancer treatment**, not for viral infections like HIV. *Antimetabolite* - Antimetabolites are drugs that interfere with DNA and RNA synthesis, often used in **chemotherapy** to treat cancer or in immunosuppression. - While they can inhibit nucleic acid synthesis, this is a broad category, and emtricitabine's specific mechanism and classification are as an NRTI. *Integrase Inhibitor* - Integrase inhibitors are another class of **antiretroviral drugs** that block the HIV enzyme integrase, preventing the viral DNA from integrating into the host cell's DNA. - While an antiretroviral, emtricitabine has a different mechanism of action and belongs to the NRTI class.
Question 565: Quinine primarily acts on which stage of the Plasmodium life cycle?
- A. Exoerythrocytic
- B. Pre-erythrocytic
- C. Erythrocytic (Correct Answer)
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Correct: Erythrocytic*** - Quinine primarily acts as a **blood schizonticide**, targeting the asexual erythrocytic stages of the *Plasmodium* parasite. - Its mechanism involves interfering with the parasite's ability to detoxify **heme**, leading to accumulation of toxic byproducts and parasite death within **red blood cells**. - This is why quinine is effective in treating **acute malaria attacks** during the symptomatic phase of the disease. *Incorrect: Exoerythrocytic* - The **exoerythrocytic stage** occurs in the liver, where sporozoites develop into merozoites. - Quinine has **minimal or no activity** against these liver stages, meaning it does not prevent initial infection or relapse from hepatic dormant forms (hypnozoites). - Drugs like **primaquine** target this stage. *Incorrect: Pre-erythrocytic* - The **pre-erythrocytic stage** is another term for the exoerythrocytic or liver stage of the parasite life cycle, occurring before the parasite enters red blood cells. - Medications that target this stage are known as **causal prophylactics**, which quinine is not. - Quinine has **no significant activity** at this stage. *Incorrect: None of the options* - This option is incorrect as quinine specifically targets the **erythrocytic stage**, making that option the correct answer. - Quinine's effectiveness in treating malaria stems from its action during the **symptomatic phase** of the disease, which corresponds to the erythrocytic cycle in red blood cells.
Question 566: Which of the following is a primary use of Levamisole?
- A. Immunostimulant
- B. Antihelminthic (Correct Answer)
- C. None of the options
- D. Immunomodulator
Explanation: ***Antihelminthic*** - Levamisole is **primarily classified as an antihelminthic drug**, used to treat parasitic worm infections. - It acts as a **nicotinic receptor agonist** in nematodes, causing spastic paralysis of the worms, leading to their expulsion. - It was historically used in humans for treating ascariasis and hookworm infections, and is still used in **veterinary medicine** for deworming livestock. - This is its **primary pharmacological classification** in standard medical textbooks. *Immunomodulator* - Levamisole does have **immunomodulatory properties** that were discovered secondary to its antihelminthic use. - It was used as **adjuvant therapy in colon cancer** (with 5-FU) to enhance immune response. - However, this is a **secondary use**, not its primary classification, and has been largely discontinued due to severe side effects like agranulocytosis. *Immunostimulant* - While levamisole can stimulate certain aspects of cell-mediated immunity, this overlaps with its immunomodulatory effects. - This is **not its primary pharmacological classification** - it remains primarily an antihelminthic agent. *None of the options* - This is incorrect because **antihelminthic** is clearly the primary and correct classification of levamisole in pharmacology. - Its antihelminthic action was its original and primary therapeutic application.
Physiology
1 questionsThe major role of 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate in RBCs is -
NEET-PG 2015 - Physiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 561: The major role of 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate in RBCs is -
- A. Acid-base balance
- B. Reversal of glycolysis
- C. Release of oxygen (Correct Answer)
- D. Binding of oxygen
Explanation: ***Release of oxygen*** - **2,3-bisphosphoglycerate (2,3-BPG)** binds allosterically to **deoxyhemoglobin**, stabilizing its T (tense) state. - This binding reduces hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen, promoting the **release of oxygen** to tissues. *Acid-base balance* - While red blood cells play a role in **acid-base balance** through the bicarbonate buffer system, 2,3-BPG's primary role is not buffering. - The **chloride shift** and **carbonic anhydrase** are more directly involved in RBC acid-base regulation. *Reversal of glycolysis* - 2,3-BPG is an intermediate of the **Rapoport-Luebering shunt**, a side pathway of glycolysis. - It does not reverse glycolysis but rather is produced during glycolysis to serve a specific function in oxygen transport. *Binding of oxygen* - 2,3-BPG **decreases** hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen, thus promoting its *release* from hemoglobin, not its binding. - Oxygen binding to hemoglobin occurs primarily at the **heme iron** without 2,3-BPG.