Biochemistry
4 questionsTransport of lipids from the intestine to other tissues is by -
Which of the following statements are true regarding the visual cycle cascade?
In the malate shuttle, how many ATPs are produced from one NADH?
Which method is used to separate a mixture of lipids?
NEET-PG 2015 - Biochemistry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 261: Transport of lipids from the intestine to other tissues is by -
- A. Chylomicrons (Correct Answer)
- B. LDL
- C. HDL
- D. VLDL
Explanation: ***Chylomicrons*** - **Chylomicrons** are the **largest lipoprotein particles** that transport **dietary (exogenous) lipids** from the **intestine** to peripheral tissues - They are synthesized in **intestinal enterocytes** after fat absorption and enter the bloodstream via the **lymphatic system (thoracic duct)** - They carry **triglycerides (85-95%), cholesterol, phospholipids, and fat-soluble vitamins** (A, D, E, K) - **Apolipoprotein B-48** is the characteristic structural protein of chylomicrons - After delivering triglycerides to tissues (via lipoprotein lipase), chylomicron remnants are taken up by the **liver** *LDL (Low-Density Lipoprotein)* - LDL transports **cholesterol from the liver to peripheral tissues** (not from intestine) - It carries **endogenous cholesterol**, not dietary lipids from the intestine - Often called "**bad cholesterol**" due to its role in atherosclerosis - Contains **Apolipoprotein B-100** *HDL (High-Density Lipoprotein)* - HDL performs **reverse cholesterol transport** - moving excess cholesterol from peripheral tissues **back to the liver** - It does **not transport lipids from the intestine** to tissues - Called "**good cholesterol**" for its protective cardiovascular role - Contains **Apolipoprotein A-I and A-II** *VLDL (Very-Low-Density Lipoprotein)* - VLDL is synthesized in the **liver** (not intestine) and transports **endogenous triglycerides** to peripheral tissues - It carries lipids **from the liver**, not from the intestine - VLDL is converted to IDL and then LDL after losing triglycerides - Contains **Apolipoprotein B-100**
Question 262: Which of the following statements are true regarding the visual cycle cascade?
- A. All of the options are true (Correct Answer)
- B. Light causes isomerization of 11-cis-retinal to all-trans-retinal
- C. Retinal is involved in the visual cycle
- D. Involves a conformational change in opsin
Explanation: ***All of the statements are true*** The visual cycle cascade involves multiple interconnected events in phototransduction: **Light causes isomerization of 11-cis-retinal to all-trans-retinal** - This is the **primary photochemical event** that initiates vision - Light absorption causes the **cis-trans isomerization** in less than a picosecond - This conformational change is the only light-dependent step in the entire cascade **Retinal is involved in the visual cycle** - **11-cis-retinal** serves as the chromophore bound to opsin forming rhodopsin - After isomerization to **all-trans-retinal**, it must be converted back to 11-cis-retinal - This regeneration occurs through the **retinoid cycle** involving RPE cells **Involves a conformational change in opsin** - The isomerization of retinal triggers **conformational changes in opsin** - This converts rhodopsin to **metarhodopsin II** (the active form) - Activated opsin then activates **transducin** (G-protein), amplifying the signal and leading to hyperpolarization of photoreceptor cells All three statements accurately describe essential components of the visual cycle cascade.
Question 263: In the malate shuttle, how many ATPs are produced from one NADH?
- A. 1 ATP
- B. 3 ATP
- C. 2 ATP
- D. 2.5 ATP (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***2.5 ATP*** - In the **malate-aspartate shuttle**, mitochondrial **NADH** is regenerated from cytosolic NADH, and then enters the electron transport chain at **Complex I**. - **Complex I** entry means that NADH contributes to the pumping of enough protons to generate approximately **2.5 ATP** through oxidative phosphorylation. *1 ATP* - **1 ATP** is not the direct equivalent produced from the reoxidation of one NADH via the malate shuttle into the electron transport chain. - This value is typically associated with the direct hydrolysis of **ATP** or the energy equivalent of **GTP** produced in the citric acid cycle. *3 ATP* - Historically, **3 ATP** was the accepted stoichiometry for one NADH, but more accurate measurements of proton pumping and ATP synthase activity have revised this. - The value of 3 ATP per NADH does not reflect the most current understanding of mitochondrial bioenergetics. *2 ATP* - **2 ATP** is the approximate yield for **FADH2** entering the electron transport chain at **Complex II**, bypassing Complex I, and thus pumping fewer protons. - This value is not applicable to NADH transferred via the malate-aspartate shuttle, as NADH enters at Complex I.
Question 264: Which method is used to separate a mixture of lipids?
- A. Electrophoresis
- B. Chromatography (Correct Answer)
- C. Isoelectric focusing
- D. PAGE
Explanation: ***Chromatography*** - **Chromatography** (e.g., thin-layer chromatography, gas chromatography, high-performance liquid chromatography) is widely used to separate lipids based on differences in their **polarity**, **molecular weight**, or **solubility** in various solvents. - This method allows for the isolation and identification of different lipid classes and individual lipid species from a complex mixture. *Electrophoresis* - **Electrophoresis** separates molecules based on their **charge** and **size** in an electric field, making it more commonly used for proteins and nucleic acids. - Lipids are generally **uncharged** or have very low charge, which makes them poorly suited for separation by standard electrophoretic methods without modification. *Isoelectric focusing* - **Isoelectric focusing** is a type of electrophoresis that separates molecules based on their **isoelectric point (pI)**, which is the pH at which a molecule has no net charge. - This technique is primarily used for **proteins** and **peptides**, as lipids typically lack ionizable groups necessary for establishing a distinct pI. *PAGE* - **PAGE** (Polyacrylamide Gel Electrophoresis) is a common method used to separate **proteins** and **nucleic acids** based on their size and charge. - Lipids are **hydrophobic** and do not readily migrate through an aqueous polyacrylamide gel matrix, making PAGE unsuitable for their direct separation.
Physiology
6 questionsWhat physiological mechanism is responsible for the increase in the duration of expiration?
Which of the following statements is true regarding smooth muscle contraction?
What does the transient response observed during the insertion of an electrode in electromyography (EMG) indicate?
What do motor evoked potentials primarily assess?
Which protein primarily contributes to oncotic pressure in the blood?
Increase in plasma viscosity is maximally caused by which plasma protein?
NEET-PG 2015 - Physiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 261: What physiological mechanism is responsible for the increase in the duration of expiration?
- A. J-reflex
- B. Head's paradoxical reflex
- C. Proprioceptors
- D. Hering-Breuer reflex (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Hering-Breuer reflex*** - The **Hering-Breuer reflex** is initiated by **stretch receptors in the bronchi and bronchioles** which are activated during lung inflation. - This reflex **inhibits inspiration** and **prolongs expiration**, preventing overinflation of the lungs. *J-reflex* - The **J-reflex** is stimulated by **juxtacapillary (J) receptors** in the alveolar walls, usually in response to pulmonary edema or congestion. - It typically causes **rapid, shallow breathing** and **bronchoconstriction**, not prolonged expiration. *Head's paradoxical reflex* - **Head's paradoxical reflex** (also known as the **inflation reflex** in newborns) involves an inspiratory effort triggered by lung inflation, often overcoming the Hering-Breuer reflex in specific conditions. - It tends to **increase respiratory rate** and depth, not prolong expiration. *Proprioceptors* - **Proprioceptors** are sensory receptors in muscles, tendons, and joints that provide information about body position and movement. - While they can influence respiration during exercise, they are not primarily responsible for directly **increasing the duration of expiration** as a reflex mechanism against overinflation.
Question 262: Which of the following statements is true regarding smooth muscle contraction?
- A. None of the options.
- B. Calmodulin plays no role in smooth muscle contraction.
- C. Phosphorylation of myosin is essential for contraction. (Correct Answer)
- D. Troponin plays a significant role in smooth muscle contraction.
Explanation: **Phosphorylation of myosin is essential for contraction.** - In **smooth muscle**, the **myosin light chain (MLC)** must be phosphorylated by **myosin light chain kinase (MLCK)** to enable interaction with actin and initiate contraction. - This phosphorylation causes a conformational change in the **myosin head**, increasing its ATPase activity and allowing cross-bridge cycling. *Calmodulin plays no role in smooth muscle contraction.* - **Calmodulin (CaM)** is crucial for smooth muscle contraction, as it binds **calcium ions (Ca²⁺)** forming a Ca²⁺-CaM complex. - This complex then activates **myosin light chain kinase (MLCK)**, which phosphorylates myosin, triggering contraction. *None of the options.* - This statement is incorrect because one of the provided options, "Phosphorylation of myosin is essential for contraction," is indeed true. *Troponin plays a significant role in smooth muscle contraction.* - Unlike **striated muscle (skeletal and cardiac)**, **smooth muscle** does not contain **troponin**. - Regulation of smooth muscle contraction is primarily **calcium-calmodulin-dependent**, with roles for **MLCK** and **MLCP**, rather than troponin.
Question 263: What does the transient response observed during the insertion of an electrode in electromyography (EMG) indicate?
- A. Spontaneous muscle activity
- B. Voluntary muscle contraction
- C. Cell membrane disruption (Correct Answer)
- D. Induced muscle contraction
Explanation: **Cell membrane disruption** - The **transient response** observed during electrode insertion in **EMG** is caused by the mechanical trauma of the needle disrupting the **muscle fiber cell membranes**. - This disruption leads to a brief depolarization and subsequent repolarization of the affected fibers, generating characteristic electrical activity. *Spontaneous muscle activity* - **Spontaneous muscle activity**, such as **fibrillation potentials** or **positive sharp waves**, occurs independently of electrode insertion. - While observed during EMG, these are indicative of **denervation** or **myopathy** and are not directly caused by the act of insertion itself. *Voluntary muscle contraction* - **Voluntary muscle contraction** is recorded when the patient actively contracts the muscle and results in **motor unit action potentials (MUAPs)**. - This is a distinct process from the transient activity produced by electrode insertion. *Induced muscle contraction* - **Induced muscle contraction** typically refers to activity caused by **nerve stimulation** (e.g., in nerve conduction studies) or direct electrical stimulation of the muscle. - This is not the mechanism for the transient response during simple electrode insertion.
Question 264: What do motor evoked potentials primarily assess?
- A. Central motor pathways (Correct Answer)
- B. Both central and peripheral motor pathways
- C. Muscle regeneration
- D. Peripheral motor pathways
Explanation: ***Central motor pathways*** - **Motor evoked potentials (MEPs)** are generated by electrical or magnetic stimulation of the **motor cortex** and primarily assess the integrity of **central motor pathways**, specifically the **corticospinal tracts**. - MEPs are the **gold standard** for monitoring **upper motor neuron** function during neurosurgical and spinal procedures. - The technique is most sensitive to dysfunction in the **brain and spinal cord** (central nervous system), making this their primary clinical utility. *Peripheral motor pathways* - While MEPs do eventually activate peripheral motor neurons to produce muscle responses, they are **not the primary tool** for assessing peripheral pathways. - **Nerve conduction studies (NCS)** and **electromyography (EMG)** are direct and more specific measures for evaluating peripheral motor nerve function. *Both central and peripheral motor pathways* - Although MEPs provide information about the entire motor pathway from cortex to muscle, their **primary diagnostic strength and clinical application** is in detecting dysfunction within the **central nervous system**. - The latency and amplitude of MEPs are most sensitive to **conduction abnormalities along the corticospinal tract**, not peripheral nerves. *Muscle regeneration* - MEPs do **not assess muscle regeneration** or intrinsic muscle health. - **Electromyography (EMG)** with needle examination and **muscle biopsy** are the appropriate methods to evaluate muscle regeneration and myopathic processes.
Question 265: Which protein primarily contributes to oncotic pressure in the blood?
- A. Albumin (Correct Answer)
- B. Globulins
- C. Fibrinogen
- D. Transferrin
Explanation: ***Albumin*** - **Albumin** is the most abundant plasma protein and its small size and high concentration make it the primary determinant of **oncotic pressure** in the blood. - Its presence in the capillaries draws water from the **interstitial space** back into the blood vessels, maintaining **fluid balance** and blood volume. *Fibrinogen* - **Fibrinogen** is a crucial protein involved in **blood clotting**, where it is converted into **fibrin** to form a clot. - While a plasma protein, its contribution to **oncotic pressure** is minor compared to albumin, as it's less abundant and larger in size. *Globulins* - **Globulins** are a diverse group of proteins involved in immune function (**immunoglobulins**), transport (e.g., **alpha** and **beta globulins**), and clotting. - While they contribute to total plasma protein concentration, their collective impact on **oncotic pressure** is secondary to that of albumin due to lower concentrations and varied molecular weights. *Transferrin* - **Transferrin** is a specific **beta-globulin** that plays a vital role in **iron transport** in the blood. - Its primary function is not related to **oncotic pressure**, and its concentration is significantly lower than albumin.
Question 266: Increase in plasma viscosity is maximally caused by which plasma protein?
- A. Albumin
- B. All have equal effect
- C. Globulin
- D. Fibrinogen (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Globulin*** - Increased levels of **globulin** proteins, particularly in inflammatory or proliferative conditions, have a significant impact on plasma viscosity due to their **high molecular weight** [1]. - **Globulins** contribute to **hyperviscosity syndrome**, which can lead to clinical symptoms like fatigue and visual disturbances [1]. *Albumin* - While **albumin** is the most abundant plasma protein, its primary role is in maintaining **oncotic pressure**, not significantly affecting plasma viscosity. - An increase in albumin does not correlate with plasma viscosity increases to the extent seen with globulins. *All have equal effect* - Different plasma proteins do not have **equal effects** on viscosity; **globulins** and **fibrinogen** particularly influence it more than **albumin**. - The impact on viscosity varies significantly with protein concentration and type, making this statement inaccurate. *Fibrinogen* - **Fibrinogen** does contribute to plasma viscosity but is typically less than that caused by globulins, especially when globulin levels are markedly elevated. - Its effect is more pronounced during **coagulation**, rather than in the general increase of plasma viscosity associated with inflammatory states. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. (Basic Pathology) introduces the student to key general principles of pathology, both as a medical science and as a clinical activity with a vital role in patient care. Part 2 (Disease Mechanisms) provides fundamental knowledge about the cellular and molecular processes involved in diseases, providing the rationale for their treatment. Part 3 (Systematic Pathology) deals in detail with specific diseases, with emphasis on the clinically important aspects., pp. 141-142.