Dermatology
1 questionsWhat do the Lines of Blaschko represent?
NEET-PG 2015 - Dermatology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1271: What do the Lines of Blaschko represent?
- A. Patterns along lymphatics
- B. Patterns along blood vessels
- C. Patterns along nerves
- D. Patterns of cell migration (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Patterns of cell migration*** - The **Lines of Blaschko** are invisible patterns in the skin reflecting the **movement and proliferation of cells** during embryonic development. - They become apparent in certain genetic conditions or mosaics when affected cells form streaks or swirls following these lines. *Patterns along lymphatics* - **Lymphatic patterns** refer to the distribution of the lymphatic system, which drains interstitial fluid and immune cells. - Skin conditions involving lymphatics often present as **lymphedema** or **lymphangitis**, which do not typically follow Blaschko's lines. *Patterns along blood vessels* - **Vascular patterns** describe the distribution of blood vessels in the skin, which can be affected in conditions like **livedo reticularis** or **vasculitis**. - These are distinct from Blaschko's lines, which are embryological in origin and not directly related to vascular anatomy. *Patterns along nerves* - **Nerve patterns** in the skin, such as **dermatomes**, correspond to the sensory innervation supplied by spinal nerves. - While some skin conditions can follow dermatomal distributions (e.g., **herpes zoster**), these are distinct from the embryological migration patterns represented by Blaschko's lines.
Orthopaedics
9 questionsThe K nail can be used for all of the following types of fractures except -
Thomas test is used for testing?
A child presented to an orthopaedic clinic with a limp. The surgeon suspected him to have a fixed flexion deformity of the hip. Which test should the surgeon perform to confirm his finding?
The A1 pulley involved in trigger finger is located at the level of which joint?
Aeroplane splint is used in ?
All of the following are true regarding the application of POP Cast except -
During performing a total hip replacement, the surgeon found destruction of the articular cartilage and multiple wedge-shaped subchondral depressions. What is this called?
The Salter Harris classification is used for classifying which type of injuries?
In which condition is the Milwaukee Brace primarily used?
NEET-PG 2015 - Orthopaedics NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1271: The K nail can be used for all of the following types of fractures except -
- A. Isthmic femur shaft fractures
- B. Intertrochanteric fractures (Correct Answer)
- C. Low subtrochanteric fractures
- D. Distal femur shaft fractures
Explanation: ***Intertrochanteric fractures*** - The K nail (specifically, the Kuntscher nail) is a **straight intramedullary nail** primarily designed for diaphyseal fractures. - It is **not suitable for intertrochanteric fractures** as these are metaphyseal and involve the proximal femur, requiring implants that offer greater stability in this region, such as cephalomedullary nails or plates. *Isthmic femur shaft fractures* - The **Kuntscher nail** was originally developed for and is well-suited for **isthmic femur shaft fractures** due to the narrow canal providing good cortical fixation. - Its design as a straight, broad nail fits snugly in the isthmus, providing excellent stability. *Low subtrochanteric fractures* - While more challenging, **K nails can be used for low subtrochanteric fractures**, especially if the fracture extends into the diaphyseal region. - However, newer implants like **cephalomedullary nails** are often preferred due to better biomechanical stability in this region. *Distal femur shaft fractures* - **K nails can be employed for distal femoral shaft fractures** if the fracture pattern allows for adequate fixation distal to the isthmus without compromising knee joint function. - The nail must be long enough to achieve stability, and the lack of proper locking mechanisms in traditional K nails may be a limiting factor compared to locked intramedullary nails.
Question 1272: Thomas test is used for testing?
- A. Knee flexion
- B. Hip abduction
- C. Hip rotation
- D. Hip flexor tightness (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Hip flexor tightness*** - The **Thomas test** is a diagnostic maneuver used specifically to assess for the presence of **flexion contractures** within the hip joint. - It helps identify tightness in muscles such as the **iliopsoas**, rectus femoris, and tensor fasciae latae. *Knee flexion* - While hip flexor tightness can indirectly affect knee position, the Thomas test does not primarily measure the range of motion of **knee flexion** itself. - **Other tests**, such as goniometric measurements of the knee joint, are used to assess knee flexion directly. *Hip abduction* - The Thomas test is not designed to evaluate **hip abduction** range of motion. - Hip abduction is tested through maneuvers that move the leg away from the midline of the body, often with the patient in a side-lying or supine position, assessing muscles like the **gluteus medius** and minimus. *Hip rotation* - The Thomas test does not assess **hip rotation** (internal or external). - Hip rotation is typically evaluated with the hip and knee flexed to 90 degrees, assessing the rotational range of the **femoral head within the acetabulum**.
Question 1273: A child presented to an orthopaedic clinic with a limp. The surgeon suspected him to have a fixed flexion deformity of the hip. Which test should the surgeon perform to confirm his finding?
- A. Thomas test (Correct Answer)
- B. Trendelenburgs test
- C. Telescoping test
- D. Nelaton's test
Explanation: ***Thomas test*** - The **Thomas test** is specifically designed to detect a **fixed flexion deformity of the hip**, where the hip cannot fully extend. - During the test, the patient's hip is flexed to flatten the lumbar spine, and if the contralateral leg then rises off the table, it indicates a fixed flexion deformity. *Trendelenburg's test* - The **Trendelenburg's test** assesses the strength and function of the **hip abductor muscles**, primarily the gluteus medius. - A positive result indicates weakness of the abductors on the standing leg, causing the pelvis to drop on the unsupported side, which is unrelated to fixed flexion deformity. *Nelaton's test* - **Nelaton's test** is used to determine the relative position of the **greater trochanter** in relation to the **ischial tuberosity** and **anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS)**, primarily in cases of hip dislocation or fracture. - It would not specifically identify a fixed flexion deformity of the hip joint itself. *Telescoping test* - The **telescoping test** is used to evaluate for hip instability, particularly in infants with **developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH)**. - It involves applying axial pressure to the femur while moving the hip, assessing for abnormal movement of the femoral head within the acetabulum, and does not directly detect fixed flexion deformity.
Question 1274: The A1 pulley involved in trigger finger is located at the level of which joint?
- A. Proximal Interphalngeal joint
- B. Metacarpophalangeal joint (Correct Answer)
- C. Carpometacarpal joint
- D. Distal Interphalangeal joint
Explanation: ***Metacarpophalangeal joint*** - The **A1 pulley** is located at the base of the finger, overlying the **metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint**. - Its pathological thickening or narrowing can impede the smooth gliding of **flexor tendons**, causing **trigger finger**. *Proximal Interphalangeal joint* - The **A2** and **A3 pulleys** are located at the level of the **proximal phalanx** and **proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint**, respectively. - While essential for tendon function, they are not primarily involved in typical **trigger finger**. *Distal Interphalangeal joint* - The **A4** and **A5 pulleys** are located at the level of the **middle phalanx** and **distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint**, respectively. - Pathologies at these pulleys are less common in trigger finger and typically affect the **distal tendon glide**. *Carpometacarpal joint* - The **carpometacarpal (CMC) joints** are located at the base of the hand, between the carpal bones and metacarpals. - There are no A pulleys associated with the CMC joints, and they are not directly involved in the mechanism of **trigger finger**.
Question 1275: Aeroplane splint is used in ?
- A. Brachial plexus injury (Correct Answer)
- B. Ulnar nerve injury
- C. Radial nerve injury
- D. Scoliosis
Explanation: ***Brachial plexus injury*** - The **aeroplane splint** is specifically designed to support the arm in **abduction** and **external rotation** at the shoulder, with the elbow flexed. - This position helps to relieve tension on the injured **brachial plexus** nerves and prevents contractures, particularly after an **upper brachial plexus injury** (e.g., Erb's palsy). *Radial nerve injury* - Radial nerve injuries typically present with **wrist drop** and difficulty with finger extension. - Splints for radial nerve injury, such as a **dynamic wrist extension splint**, focus on supporting wrist and finger extension, not shoulder abduction. *Ulnar nerve injury* - Ulnar nerve injuries lead to a **claw hand deformity** and sensory loss in the pinky and half of the ring finger. - Splints for ulnar nerve injury aim to prevent hyperextension of the metacarpophalangeal joints and support the interphalangeal joints, often involving static or dynamic splints for the hand. *Scoliosis* - Scoliosis is a **lateral curvature of the spine**, usually treated with bracing (e.g., Boston brace or Milwaukee brace) or surgery. - An aeroplane splint has no role in the management or treatment of scoliosis.
Question 1276: All of the following are true regarding the application of POP Cast except -
- A. It can be applied in presence of extreme swelling
- B. Gangrene is known complication of a tight plaster cast
- C. Putting the Plaster roll in warm water hastens setting time
- D. It is anhydrous Calcium phosphate (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***It is anhydrous Calcium phosphate*** - **Plaster of Paris (POP)** is chemically **calcium sulfate hemihydrate** (CaSO₄·½H₂O), not anhydrous calcium phosphate. - Adding water to calcium sulfate hemihydrate causes an exothermic reaction, forming **calcium sulfate dihydrate**, which is the hardened cast. *Putting the Plaster roll in warm water hastens setting time* - **Warm water** increases the rate of the chemical reaction that causes POP to set, thus **hastening the setting time**. - While it speeds up setting, excessively hot water can lead to a cast that sets too quickly or becomes brittle. *It can be applied in presence of extreme swelling* - Applying a non-flexible POP cast in the presence of **extreme swelling** is contraindicated because swelling will rapidly resolve, making the cast loose and ineffective. - Furthermore, if swelling increases unexpectedly under a tight cast, it can lead to dangerous **compartment syndrome**. *Gangrene is known complication of a tight plaster cast* - A **tight plaster cast** can compromise blood supply to the limb by compressing arteries and veins, potentially leading to **ischemia**. - Prolonged ischemia due to a tight cast can cause **tissue necrosis** and ultimately **gangrene** if not identified and treated promptly.
Question 1277: During performing a total hip replacement, the surgeon found destruction of the articular cartilage and multiple wedge-shaped subchondral depressions. What is this called?
- A. Osteolysis
- B. Osteomyelitis
- C. Osteonecrosis (Correct Answer)
- D. Osteogenesis
Explanation: ***Osteonecrosis*** - **Osteonecrosis**, also known as **avascular necrosis**, is characterized by the death of bone tissue due to a lack of blood supply, which leads to the collapse of the subchondral bone and articular cartilage destruction. - The description of **wedge-shaped subchondral depressions** and **articular cartilage destruction** is highly indicative of osteonecrosis, especially in the context of advanced hip joint pathology requiring total hip replacement. *Osteolysis* - **Osteolysis** refers to the active resorption of bone, often seen around implants in prosthetic joints due to wear particles, leading to bone loss. - While it involves bone destruction, it typically presents as diffuse bone loss rather than specific wedge-shaped subchondral depressions. *Osteomyelitis* - **Osteomyelitis** is an infection of the bone or bone marrow, often leading to bone destruction, but it is primarily characterized by inflammation and pus formation. - The presented scenario does not mention signs of infection (e.g., fever, pus, inflammation) but focuses purely on structural destruction consistent with vascular compromise. *Osteogenesis* - **Osteogenesis** is the process of bone formation or development. - This term describes the creation of bone tissue and is the opposite of bone destruction, making it an incorrect answer for a condition involving cartilage and bone deterioration.
Question 1278: The Salter Harris classification is used for classifying which type of injuries?
- A. Soft tissue injuries in pediatric patients
- B. Long bone fractures without growth plate involvement
- C. Joint dislocations in pediatric orthopedics
- D. Fractures involving the physis in children (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Fractures involving the physis in children*** - The **Salter-Harris classification system** is specifically designed for classifying fractures that involve the **growth plate (physis)** in children. - This system helps predict the risk of **growth disturbance** and guides treatment decisions based on the fracture pattern. *Soft tissue injuries in pediatric patients* - The Salter-Harris classification does not apply to **soft tissue injuries** like sprains or strains. - Soft tissue injuries are assessed using different classification systems or descriptive terms. *Long bone fractures without growth plate involvement* - Fractures in children that do not involve the growth plate are classified using descriptive terms, such as **transverse**, **oblique**, or **spiral fractures**, or other systems like the **AO pediatric classification**, not Salter-Harris. - The Salter-Harris system is unique to physis involvement. *Joint dislocations in pediatric orthopedics* - **Joint dislocations** involve the displacement of bones at a joint and are classified by the direction of displacement (e.g., anterior, posterior). - They do not involve a fracture of the growth plate itself, so the Salter-Harris system is not applicable.
Question 1279: In which condition is the Milwaukee Brace primarily used?
- A. Spondylolisthesis
- B. Scheuermann's Disease
- C. Congenital Kyphosis
- D. Adolescent Idiopathic Scoliosis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Adolescent Idiopathic Scoliosis*** - The **Milwaukee Brace** is a widely recognized and historically significant orthotic device used primarily for the non-surgical management of **scoliosis**, particularly **adolescent idiopathic scoliosis**. - It works by applying corrective forces to the spine to prevent further curvature progression and often allows for some correction during growth. *Congenital Kyphosis* - **Congenital kyphosis** is a spinal deformity present at birth, often caused by vertebral malformations, which is typically managed surgically, especially if progressive. - While bracing can be attempted for mild, flexible curves, the Milwaukee Brace is not the primary or most effective treatment for its structural nature. *Scheuermann's Disease* - **Scheuermann's disease** is a form of kyphosis where wedging of the vertebrae causes a rigid, exaggerated forward curvature of the thoracic spine. - While bracing can be used to treat Scheuermann's disease, the **Milwaukee brace** is not the brace of choice. A **kyphosis-specific brace** such as a kyphosis-bifocal brace or a molded thoracolumbar sacral orthosis (TLSO) is typically preferred. *Spondylolisthesis* - **Spondylolisthesis** involves the forward slippage of one vertebra over another, often in the lumbar spine. - Management typically involves activity restriction, physical therapy, and sometimes surgical fusion, with bracing aimed at stabilizing the spine rather than correcting a lateral curve, making the Milwaukee Brace unsuitable.