Which nerve is primarily affected by lunate dislocation in the carpal tunnel?
Adson's test is positive in -
Which of the following statements is true regarding a Monteggia fracture?
Who devised the correction of CTEV by serial casting?
In which condition is the Hamilton Ruler test sign positive?
Flexor Digitorum Profundus tendon avulsion injury leads to -
The K nail can be used for all of the following types of fractures except -
Thomas test is used for testing?
A child presented to an orthopaedic clinic with a limp. The surgeon suspected him to have a fixed flexion deformity of the hip. Which test should the surgeon perform to confirm his finding?
The A1 pulley involved in trigger finger is located at the level of which joint?
NEET-PG 2015 - Orthopaedics NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 11: Which nerve is primarily affected by lunate dislocation in the carpal tunnel?
- A. Ulnar
- B. Median nerve (Correct Answer)
- C. Radial nerve
- D. Median & ulnar nerve
Explanation: ***Median nerve*** - The **lunate bone** dislocates volarly into the **carpal tunnel**, directly compressing the median nerve which passes through this space. - This compression leads to symptoms typical of **carpal tunnel syndrome**, such as numbness and tingling in the thumb, index, middle, and radial half of the ring finger. *Ulnar* - The **ulnar nerve** passes outside the carpal tunnel, through Guyon's canal, and is therefore not typically affected by injuries within the carpal tunnel itself. - Compression of the ulnar nerve would result in symptoms in the little finger and ulnar half of the ring finger, which are not the primary symptoms associated with lunate dislocation. *Radial nerve* - The **radial nerve** primarily innervates the dorsal aspect of the hand and travels more superficially in the forearm, not through the carpal tunnel. - Injuries to the radial nerve usually result from fractures of the humerus or direct trauma to the forearm, not lunate dislocation. *Median & ulnar nerve* - While both nerves can be affected by severe, generalized trauma to the wrist, a classic lunate dislocation specifically targets the **median nerve** within the carpal tunnel. - Concurrent ulnar nerve involvement is less common and would suggest additional or more extensive injury beyond a simple lunate dislocation affecting the carpal tunnel.
Question 12: Adson's test is positive in -
- A. Cervical rib (Correct Answer)
- B. Cervical spondylosis
- C. Cervical fracture
- D. Cervical dislocation
Explanation: ***Cervical rib*** - **Adson's test** assesses for **thoracic outlet syndrome (TOS)**, which can be caused by a cervical rib compressing the **subclavian artery** or **brachial plexus**. - A positive test occurs when the radial pulse diminishes or disappears upon specific head and arm maneuvers, indicating neurovascular compression. *Cervical spondylosis* - This condition involves **degenerative changes** in the cervical spine, such as bone spurs and disc herniation. - While it can cause neurological symptoms, it typically does not lead to a positive Adson's test, as the compression site is different from that assessed by the test. *Cervical fracture* - A cervical fracture is a **traumatic injury** to the bones of the neck. - Adson's test is not indicated for diagnosing fractures and performing it could exacerbate the injury. *Cervical dislocation* - Cervical dislocation is a severe injury where cervical vertebrae are **displaced from their normal alignment**. - Similar to fractures, Adson's test is not appropriate for diagnosing or evaluating dislocations and carries a risk of further injury.
Question 13: Which of the following statements is true regarding a Monteggia fracture?
- A. Upper ulnar fracture with dislocated radial head. (Correct Answer)
- B. Upper radial fracture with dislocated ulna.
- C. Lower radial fracture with dislocated ulna.
- D. Lower ulnar fracture with dislocated radius.
Explanation: ***Upper ulnar fracture with dislocated radial head.*** - A Monteggia fracture is classically defined as a fracture of the **proximal or middle third of the ulna** accompanied by an **anterior dislocation of the radial head**. - This injury pattern disrupts the alignment of the **forearm bones** and the **elbow joint**, requiring careful reduction and stabilization. *Upper radial fracture with dislocated ulna.* - This statement incorrectly identifies the fractured bone as the radius and the dislocated bone as the ulna. - The defining characteristic of a Monteggia fracture is the **ulnar fracture** and **radial head dislocation**. *Lower radial fracture with dislocated ulna.* - This describes a different type of injury, such as a **Galeazzi fracture**, which involves a **radial shaft fracture** with dislocation of the **distal radioulnar joint**. - It does not fit the criteria for a Monteggia fracture pattern. *Lower ulnar fracture with dislocated radius.* - This description is not consistent with a Monteggia fracture, which specifically involves the **proximal ulna** and **radial head dislocation**. - A lower ulnar fracture with distal radius dislocation is a distinct injury pattern.
Question 14: Who devised the correction of CTEV by serial casting?
- A. Gerhardt Kuntscher
- B. Gavril Ilizarov
- C. Hugh Owen Thomas
- D. Ignacio Ponseti (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Ignacio Ponseti*** - Dr. Ignacio Ponseti developed the **Ponseti method**, a non-surgical technique for correcting **congenital talipes equinovarus (CTEV)**, commonly known as clubfoot. - This method involves a series of **gentle manipulations** and **serial casting**, followed by the use of a foot abduction brace. *Gerhardt Kuntscher* - **Gerhardt Kuntscher** was a German surgeon known for developing the **intramedullary nail** for fixing long bone fractures. - His contributions revolutionized the surgical management of fractures, but he did not develop the method for CTEV correction. *Gavril Ilizarov* - **Gavril Ilizarov** was a Soviet orthopedic surgeon famous for inventing the **Ilizarov apparatus**, an external fixator used for limb lengthening and complex fracture treatment. - His work focused on osteogenesis and bone regeneration, not the non-surgical correction of clubfoot. *Hugh Owen Thomas* - **Hugh Owen Thomas** was a Welsh orthopedic surgeon regarded as the "father of British orthopaedic surgery," known for the development of the **Thomas splint**. - His contributions were primarily in managing fractures and tuberculosis of the joints, independent of CTEV correction techniques.
Question 15: In which condition is the Hamilton Ruler test sign positive?
- A. Anterior dislocation of shoulder (Correct Answer)
- B. Posterior dislocation of shoulder
- C. Luxatio erecta
- D. Acromioclavicular joint dislocation
Explanation: ***Anterior dislocation of shoulder*** - The **Hamilton Ruler test** is positive when a straight edge, like a ruler, can be laid across the **lateral aspect of the deltoid prominence** from the acromion to the lateral epicondyle. - This is indicative of the **loss of the normal rounded contour of the shoulder**, which occurs due to the humeral head dislocating anteriorly. *Acromioclavicular joint dislocation* - This condition presents with a **"step-off" deformity** at the AC joint and pain directly over the joint, but the overall contour of the shoulder glenohumeral joint is preserved. - The deltoid prominence remains intact, making the Hamilton Ruler test negative. *Posterior dislocation of shoulder* - In posterior dislocation, the **humeral head moves posteriorly**, and the anterior contour of the shoulder might appear flattened, but the characteristic prominent anterior bulge seen in anterior dislocation is absent. - The Hamilton Ruler test specifically assesses for the loss of the lateral deltoid prominence, which is more typical of anterior displacement. *Luxatio erecta* - **Luxatio erecta** is an inferior dislocation of the shoulder where the arm is fixed in an **abducted and externally rotated position**, making it appear "erect". - While a severe type of shoulder dislocation, the specific anatomical changes that lead to a positive Hamilton Ruler test (loss of lateral deltoid prominence with the humeral head moving anteriorly and medially) are not typically present in this configuration.
Question 16: Flexor Digitorum Profundus tendon avulsion injury leads to -
- A. Jersey Finger (Correct Answer)
- B. Extensor tendon injury
- C. Ulnar collateral ligament injury
- D. Central slip injury
Explanation: ***Jersey Finger*** - **Jersey finger** is a common name for an avulsion injury of the **flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) tendon** from its insertion on the distal phalanx. - This injury typically occurs when the finger is forcibly extended while the FDP tendon is contracting, often seen in sports where a player grabs an opponent's jersey. *Extensor tendon injury* - An **extensor tendon injury** involves the tendons on the dorsal side of the hand, responsible for extending the fingers. - This is distinct from a **flexor tendon injury**, which involves tendons on the palmar side. *Ulnar collateral ligament injury* - An **ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) injury** most commonly affects the thumb's metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint, often called **"skier's thumb"**. - This injury involves damage to the ligament supporting the joint, not an avulsion of a flexor tendon. *Central slip injury* - A **central slip injury** affects the middle slip of the extensor digitorum communis tendon over the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint. - Untreated, it can lead to a **Boutonnière deformity**, which is characterized by PIP joint flexion and distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint hyperextension.
Question 17: The K nail can be used for all of the following types of fractures except -
- A. Isthmic femur shaft fractures
- B. Intertrochanteric fractures (Correct Answer)
- C. Low subtrochanteric fractures
- D. Distal femur shaft fractures
Explanation: ***Intertrochanteric fractures*** - The K nail (specifically, the Kuntscher nail) is a **straight intramedullary nail** primarily designed for diaphyseal fractures. - It is **not suitable for intertrochanteric fractures** as these are metaphyseal and involve the proximal femur, requiring implants that offer greater stability in this region, such as cephalomedullary nails or plates. *Isthmic femur shaft fractures* - The **Kuntscher nail** was originally developed for and is well-suited for **isthmic femur shaft fractures** due to the narrow canal providing good cortical fixation. - Its design as a straight, broad nail fits snugly in the isthmus, providing excellent stability. *Low subtrochanteric fractures* - While more challenging, **K nails can be used for low subtrochanteric fractures**, especially if the fracture extends into the diaphyseal region. - However, newer implants like **cephalomedullary nails** are often preferred due to better biomechanical stability in this region. *Distal femur shaft fractures* - **K nails can be employed for distal femoral shaft fractures** if the fracture pattern allows for adequate fixation distal to the isthmus without compromising knee joint function. - The nail must be long enough to achieve stability, and the lack of proper locking mechanisms in traditional K nails may be a limiting factor compared to locked intramedullary nails.
Question 18: Thomas test is used for testing?
- A. Knee flexion
- B. Hip abduction
- C. Hip rotation
- D. Hip flexor tightness (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Hip flexor tightness*** - The **Thomas test** is a diagnostic maneuver used specifically to assess for the presence of **flexion contractures** within the hip joint. - It helps identify tightness in muscles such as the **iliopsoas**, rectus femoris, and tensor fasciae latae. *Knee flexion* - While hip flexor tightness can indirectly affect knee position, the Thomas test does not primarily measure the range of motion of **knee flexion** itself. - **Other tests**, such as goniometric measurements of the knee joint, are used to assess knee flexion directly. *Hip abduction* - The Thomas test is not designed to evaluate **hip abduction** range of motion. - Hip abduction is tested through maneuvers that move the leg away from the midline of the body, often with the patient in a side-lying or supine position, assessing muscles like the **gluteus medius** and minimus. *Hip rotation* - The Thomas test does not assess **hip rotation** (internal or external). - Hip rotation is typically evaluated with the hip and knee flexed to 90 degrees, assessing the rotational range of the **femoral head within the acetabulum**.
Question 19: A child presented to an orthopaedic clinic with a limp. The surgeon suspected him to have a fixed flexion deformity of the hip. Which test should the surgeon perform to confirm his finding?
- A. Thomas test (Correct Answer)
- B. Trendelenburgs test
- C. Telescoping test
- D. Nelaton's test
Explanation: ***Thomas test*** - The **Thomas test** is specifically designed to detect a **fixed flexion deformity of the hip**, where the hip cannot fully extend. - During the test, the patient's hip is flexed to flatten the lumbar spine, and if the contralateral leg then rises off the table, it indicates a fixed flexion deformity. *Trendelenburg's test* - The **Trendelenburg's test** assesses the strength and function of the **hip abductor muscles**, primarily the gluteus medius. - A positive result indicates weakness of the abductors on the standing leg, causing the pelvis to drop on the unsupported side, which is unrelated to fixed flexion deformity. *Nelaton's test* - **Nelaton's test** is used to determine the relative position of the **greater trochanter** in relation to the **ischial tuberosity** and **anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS)**, primarily in cases of hip dislocation or fracture. - It would not specifically identify a fixed flexion deformity of the hip joint itself. *Telescoping test* - The **telescoping test** is used to evaluate for hip instability, particularly in infants with **developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH)**. - It involves applying axial pressure to the femur while moving the hip, assessing for abnormal movement of the femoral head within the acetabulum, and does not directly detect fixed flexion deformity.
Question 20: The A1 pulley involved in trigger finger is located at the level of which joint?
- A. Proximal Interphalngeal joint
- B. Metacarpophalangeal joint (Correct Answer)
- C. Carpometacarpal joint
- D. Distal Interphalangeal joint
Explanation: ***Metacarpophalangeal joint*** - The **A1 pulley** is located at the base of the finger, overlying the **metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint**. - Its pathological thickening or narrowing can impede the smooth gliding of **flexor tendons**, causing **trigger finger**. *Proximal Interphalangeal joint* - The **A2** and **A3 pulleys** are located at the level of the **proximal phalanx** and **proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint**, respectively. - While essential for tendon function, they are not primarily involved in typical **trigger finger**. *Distal Interphalangeal joint* - The **A4** and **A5 pulleys** are located at the level of the **middle phalanx** and **distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint**, respectively. - Pathologies at these pulleys are less common in trigger finger and typically affect the **distal tendon glide**. *Carpometacarpal joint* - The **carpometacarpal (CMC) joints** are located at the base of the hand, between the carpal bones and metacarpals. - There are no A pulleys associated with the CMC joints, and they are not directly involved in the mechanism of **trigger finger**.