Which of the following is an example of an antiapoptotic gene?
Unfolded protein metabolism is associated with
Which of the following is the most reactive free radical?
Which of the following is a positive acute phase protein that enhances the acute phase response?
Location of gene on chromosome is identified by
Tyrosine kinase receptor is associated with proto-oncogene -
Which of the following is not a part of extracellular matrix (ECM)?
What is the classification of Carcinoembryonic Antigen (CEA)?
Level of which of the following is not elevated in heart disease
The predominant isozyme of LDH in lung is:
NEET-PG 2015 - Biochemistry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 81: Which of the following is an example of an antiapoptotic gene?
- A. FLIP (Correct Answer)
- B. P53
- C. BAX
- D. BIM
Explanation: ***FLIP*** - **FLIP** is an **antiapoptotic gene** that inhibits the activation of caspase-8, thereby blocking the extrinsic apoptotic pathway. - It acts as an **FLICE-inhibitory protein**, preventing the formation of the death-inducing signaling complex (DISC) or its downstream activation. *P53* - **P53** is a **tumor suppressor gene** that promotes apoptosis in response to DNA damage or cellular stress. - It is a **pro-apoptotic gene**, orchestrating cell cycle arrest and apoptosis to prevent the propagation of damaged cells. *BAX* - **BAX** is a **pro-apoptotic gene** belonging to the Bcl-2 family, which promotes the release of cytochrome c from mitochondria. - This release initiates the **intrinsic apoptotic pathway**, leading to caspase activation and cell death. *BIM* - **BIM** is a **pro-apoptotic gene** of the Bcl-2 family, acting as a sensitizer for apoptosis by binding to and inhibiting anti-apoptotic Bcl-2 family proteins. - Its activation leads to the **neutralization of survival factors**, thereby promoting mitochondrial outer membrane permeabilization and apoptosis.
Question 82: Unfolded protein metabolism is associated with
- A. Endoplasmic reticulum (Correct Answer)
- B. Golgi apparatus
- C. Mitochondria
Explanation: ***Endoplasmic reticulum*** - The **endoplasmic reticulum (ER)** is the primary site for protein folding, modification, and assembly, especially for secreted and transmembrane proteins. - When misfolded proteins accumulate, the ER triggers the **unfolded protein response (UPR)** to restore homeostasis or induce apoptosis. *Golgi apparatus* - The Golgi apparatus is primarily involved in **further processing**, sorting, and packaging of proteins and lipids synthesized in the ER. - It does not directly manage the initial folding of proteins or the response to widespread protein misfolding. *Mitochondria* - **Mitochondria** are known for their role in **energy production** (ATP synthesis) through cellular respiration. - While they possess their own protein synthesis machinery for some essential mitochondrial proteins, they are not involved in the overall cellular management of unfolded protein metabolism from the ER.
Question 83: Which of the following is the most reactive free radical?
- A. Alkyl radical
- B. Superoxide radical
- C. Peroxide radical
- D. Hydroxyl radical (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Hydroxyl radical*** - The **hydroxyl radical (•OH)** is the most reactive free radical in biological systems due to its extremely high oxidation potential and short half-life. - It readily reacts with virtually all cellular macromolecules, including **DNA, proteins, and lipids**, causing widespread damage. *Peroxide radical* - The **peroxide radical (ROO•)**, or more specifically the peroxyl radical, is less reactive than the hydroxyl radical, but still significant in lipid peroxidation. - It plays a role in propagating chain reactions of **lipid damage** in cell membranes. *Alkyl radical* - **Alkyl radicals (R•)** are generally formed as intermediates during the abstraction of hydrogen atoms from saturated compounds. - While reactive, they are typically less reactive and less frequently encountered in biological systems compared to oxygen-centered radicals like the hydroxyl radical. *Superoxide radical* - The **superoxide radical (O₂•−)** is a relatively less reactive free radical compared to the hydroxyl radical, but it is the precursor to many other reactive oxygen species (ROS). - It is primarily involved in **initiation of oxidative stress** and can lead to the formation of more damaging species through reactions like the Haber-Weiss reaction.
Question 84: Which of the following is a positive acute phase protein that enhances the acute phase response?
- A. Fibrinogen (Correct Answer)
- B. Transferrin
- C. Albumin
- D. Prealbumin
Explanation: ***Fibrinogen*** - **Fibrinogen** is a key **positive acute phase protein** whose concentration increases significantly during inflammation - Its elevation contributes to the acute phase response by promoting **blood clotting** and influencing **erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)** - Along with C-reactive protein (CRP), haptoglobin, and serum amyloid A, fibrinogen is among the major positive acute phase reactants *Transferrin* - **Transferrin** is a **negative acute phase protein**, meaning its concentration decreases during inflammation - This reduction is part of the body's iron-sequestration strategy to limit iron availability for invading pathogens - The decrease in transferrin helps restrict bacterial growth by reducing available iron *Albumin* - **Albumin** is a prominent **negative acute phase protein**, with its concentration decreasing during acute inflammation due to redistribution and reduced synthesis - It plays a vital role in maintaining **oncotic pressure** and transporting various substances - Its decline reflects the severity of inflammation and is used as a marker of the acute phase response *Prealbumin* - **Prealbumin** (also known as transthyretin) is a **negative acute phase protein** and a sensitive marker of nutritional status - Its rapid decline during inflammation makes it a useful indicator, as its synthesis is quickly reduced - It has a short half-life (2-3 days), making it more sensitive to acute changes than albumin
Question 85: Location of gene on chromosome is identified by
- A. Karyotyping
- B. Genetic mapping (Correct Answer)
- C. Microarray
- D. Genomic imprinting
Explanation: ***Genetic mapping*** - **Genetic mapping** (also called chromosome mapping) uses various techniques to determine the **physical location (locus)** of genes on a chromosome. - Techniques include **linkage analysis**, **FISH (Fluorescence In Situ Hybridization)**, chromosomal banding, and analysis of **inheritance patterns** of traits and genetic markers. - This identifies both the **relative positions** between genes and their **absolute chromosomal addresses**. *Karyotyping* - **Karyotyping** is a technique that visualizes the entire set of chromosomes in an organism. - While it can identify **large chromosomal abnormalities** like aneuploidy or major deletions/insertions, it does not pinpoint the exact location of a specific gene. *Microarray* - **Microarray** technology is used to study the expression levels of thousands of genes simultaneously or to detect specific genetic variations. - It does not directly map the physical location of a gene on a chromosome. *Genomic imprinting* - **Genomic imprinting** is an epigenetic phenomenon where certain genes are expressed in a **parent-of-origin-specific manner**. - It describes a mechanism of gene regulation rather than a method for identifying the location of a gene on a chromosome.
Question 86: Tyrosine kinase receptor is associated with proto-oncogene -
- A. RAS (RAt Sarcoma)
- B. RET (REarranged during Transfection) (Correct Answer)
- C. RB (Retinoblastoma gene)
- D. MYC (Myelocytomatosis oncogene)
Explanation: ***RET*** - RET is a **tyrosine kinase receptor** that plays a crucial role in cell signaling and development [1][2]. - It is associated with several **neoplasms**, including medullary thyroid carcinoma and multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2 [1]. *RB* - RB (Retinoblastoma protein) is a **tumor suppressor gene**, not a proto-oncogene or receptor. - Its role is largely in regulating the **cell cycle**, particularly in preventing excessive cell growth. *RAS* - RAS is a family of **GTPase proteins** involved in transmitting signals within cells, but it is not a receptor itself [1]. - It is classified as an **oncogene**, but does not function as a tyrosine kinase receptor [2]. *MYC* - MYC is a **transcription factor** involved in cell cycle progression and growth, not a tyrosine kinase receptor [2]. - It is considered an **oncogene** that promotes cellular proliferation, but it doesn't have tyrosine kinase activity [3][4]. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Endocrine System, pp. 1097-1098. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Neoplasia, pp. 291-292. [3] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. With Illustrations By, pp. 28-29. [4] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Neoplasia, pp. 293-294.
Question 87: Which of the following is not a part of extracellular matrix (ECM)?
- A. Lectins (Correct Answer)
- B. Fibronectin
- C. Laminin
- D. Proteoglycans
Explanation: ***Lectins*** - **Lectins** are carbohydrate-binding proteins involved in various cellular processes but are typically found **on cell surfaces** or within cells, not as a major structural component of the ECM. - While they can interact with ECM components, they are not considered a direct structural element of the extracellular matrix itself. *Fibronectin* - **Fibronectin** is a critical **glycoprotein** in the ECM, playing a vital role in cell adhesion, growth, migration, and differentiation. - It links cells to collagen fibers and other ECM components, forming an essential scaffold. *Laminin* - **Laminin** is a major **glycoprotein** component of the **basal lamina**, a specialized layer of the ECM found beneath epithelial cells. - It helps in cell attachment, differentiation, and migration. *Proteoglycans* - **Proteoglycans** are macromolecules consisting of a **core protein** covalently linked to one or more **glycosaminoglycan (GAG) chains**. - They are abundant in the ECM, where they contribute to its structural integrity, hydration, and can regulate the diffusion of molecules.
Question 88: What is the classification of Carcinoembryonic Antigen (CEA)?
- A. Glycoprotein (Correct Answer)
- B. Lipoprotein
- C. Phosphoprotein
- D. Nucleoprotein
Explanation: ***Glycoprotein*** - Carcinoembryonic Antigen (CEA) is classified as a **glycoprotein** due to its structure, which consists of both **carbohydrate** and **protein** components. - This glycosylation is crucial for its function as a cell adhesion molecule and its recognition in diagnostic assays. *Lipoprotein* - **Lipoproteins** are complexes of lipids and proteins that function primarily in **lipid transport** in the blood. - CEA's primary role and structure are not related to lipid transport or being predominantly lipid-based. *Phosphoprotein* - A **phosphoprotein** is a protein that has been **covalently modified by the addition of a phosphate group**, a process crucial for cell signaling. - While proteins can be phosphorylated, the defining characteristic and major classification of CEA is its extensive glycosylation rather than phosphorylation state. *Nucleoprotein* - **Nucleoproteins** are proteins that are **structurally associated with nucleic acids** (DNA or RNA), such as histones or ribosomal proteins. - CEA does not have a structural or functional association with nucleic acids.
Question 89: Level of which of the following is not elevated in heart disease
- A. SGOT
- B. ALP
- C. LDH
- D. 5-nucleotidase (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***5-nucleotidase*** - While other enzymes like LDH, SGOT, and ALP can be elevated in various conditions including heart disease (especially in the context of tissue damage), 5-nucleotidase is **not typically elevated in heart disease**. - Its elevation is more commonly associated with **biliary obstruction** or certain liver pathologies. *LDH* - **Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)** is a marker of **cellular damage** and can be elevated in myocardial infarction, though it is less specific than troponins. - LDH levels rise later than CK-MB and remain elevated longer, indicating persistent tissue injury. *SGOT* - **Serum glutamic oxaloacetic transaminase (SGOT)**, also known as **aspartate aminotransferase (AST)**, is elevated in acute **myocardial infarction** due to cardiac muscle damage. - While it's a marker for cardiac injury, it's not specific as it's also highly concentrated in the liver. *ALP* - **Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)** can be mildly elevated in heart failure due to **hepatic congestion** caused by reduced cardiac output. - While its primary diagnostic significance is in bone and liver disease, its elevation in advanced heart disease is usually a secondary consequence.
Question 90: The predominant isozyme of LDH in lung is:
- A. LD-2
- B. LD-5
- C. LD-1
- D. LD-3 (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***LD-3*** - **LD-3** is the predominant **LDH isozyme** found in the **lungs**, spleen, pancreas, and lymph nodes. - Its elevation often suggests conditions affecting these organs, such as pulmonary embolism or pancreatitis. *LD-1* - **LD-1** is primarily associated with the **heart** and **red blood cells**. - Elevated levels are typically seen in conditions like myocardial infarction and hemolytic anemia. *LD-2* - **LD-2** is also found in the **heart** and **red blood cells**, though typically in lower concentrations than LD-1 in the heart. - It is often elevated after an MI, but typically LD-1 is elevated higher than LD-2 after an MI. *LD-5* - **LD-5** is predominantly found in the **liver** and **skeletal muscle**. - Its increase is indicative of liver damage or muscle injury, such as hepatitis or muscular dystrophy.