NEET-PG 2015
1414 Previous Year Questions with Answers & Explanations
Community Medicine
2 questionsIn hospital infection control, which instrument is used to monitor humidity levels to prevent nosocomial infections?
Consanguineous marriages increase the risk of which of the following diseases?
NEET-PG 2015 - Community Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: In hospital infection control, which instrument is used to monitor humidity levels to prevent nosocomial infections?
- A. Barometer
- B. Hygrometer (Correct Answer)
- C. Thermometer
- D. Anemometer
Explanation: ***Hygrometer*** - A **hygrometer** is specifically designed to measure **humidity** or the moisture content in the atmosphere. - Maintaining optimal **humidity levels** (typically 30-60%) is crucial in hospitals to control the spread of **pathogens** and prevent nosocomial infections. *Barometer* - A **barometer** measures **atmospheric pressure**, which is important for weather forecasting but not directly for hospital infection control. - It does not provide information about the moisture content in the air. *Anemometer* - An **anemometer** is used to measure **wind speed**, which is irrelevant to monitoring indoor environmental conditions for infection control. - It does not provide any data related to air humidity. *Thermometer* - A **thermometer** measures **temperature**, which is a separate environmental parameter from humidity. - While temperature control is important in healthcare settings, it does not directly monitor moisture content.
Question 2: Consanguineous marriages increase the risk of which of the following diseases?
- A. Autosomal dominant diseases
- B. Autosomal recessive diseases (Correct Answer)
- C. X linked dominant diseases
- D. Environmental diseases
Explanation: ***Autosomal recessive diseases*** - Consanguineous marriages increase the likelihood of offspring inheriting two copies of a **recessive deleterious allele** from a common ancestor. - This significantly raises the risk of expressing **autosomal recessive conditions**, as both parents are more likely to be carriers of the same rare recessive gene. - Examples include **thalassemia, sickle cell disease, and cystic fibrosis**. *Autosomal dominant diseases* - These diseases manifest with only **one copy of the mutated allele**, regardless of consanguinity. - The risk is primarily linked to whether one parent carries the dominant gene, not the relatedness of the parents. *X linked dominant diseases* - These conditions are caused by mutations on the **X chromosome** and are expressed dominantly. - Consanguinity does not specifically increase the risk, as the disease manifests when the mutated X-linked gene is inherited from an affected parent. - The inheritance pattern depends on the affected parent's sex, not on parental relatedness. *Environmental diseases* - These diseases are primarily caused by **external factors** such as toxins, diet, lifestyle choices, or infections. - While genetic predisposition may play a role, consanguinity does not directly increase the risk for environmentally triggered diseases.
Dental
1 questionsWhat is the recommended treatment for oral sores caused by inhaled steroids?
NEET-PG 2015 - Dental NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: What is the recommended treatment for oral sores caused by inhaled steroids?
- A. Fusidic acid
- B. Mupirocin ointment
- C. Clotrimazole
- D. Miconazole (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Miconazole*** - **Miconazole** is an **antifungal medication** available in gel or oral tablet forms, effective in treating oral thrush (candidiasis), a common side effect of inhaled steroid use. - Its **broad-spectrum antifungal activity** means it targets the *Candida* species responsible for these oral sores, relieving symptoms and promoting healing. *Clotrimazole* - While **clotrimazole** is an **antifungal medication** that can be used for oral candidiasis, it is typically available as troches (lozenges) and may be less commonly prescribed for this specific condition than miconazole in some regions. - Its mechanism of action involves **inhibiting ergosterol synthesis**, disrupting the fungal cell membrane; however, **miconazole** is often favored for its ease of application and efficacy in oral candidiasis. *Fusidic acid* - **Fusidic acid** is an **antibiotic** primarily used to treat bacterial infections, particularly those caused by *Staphylococcus* species. - It has **no antifungal properties**, making it ineffective against oral sores caused by inhaled steroid-induced candidiasis. *Mupirocin ointment* - **Mupirocin** is an **antibiotic ointment** used topically to treat bacterial skin infections, such as impetigo. - It works by **inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis** and is not effective against fungal infections like oral thrush.
Forensic Medicine
2 questionsIn the context of Indian law, what is the legal classification of the first offense of stalking?
Which of the following does not refer to a cannabis preparation?
NEET-PG 2015 - Forensic Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: In the context of Indian law, what is the legal classification of the first offense of stalking?
- A. Cognizable and bailable under Indian law (Correct Answer)
- B. Non-cognizable and bailable under Indian law
- C. Non-cognizable and non-bailable under Indian law
- D. Cognizable and non-bailable under Indian law
Explanation: ***Cognizable and bailable under Indian law*** - Under Section 354D of the **Indian Penal Code (IPC)**, the **first offense** of stalking is classified as **cognizable and bailable**. - **Cognizable** means a police officer can arrest the accused without a warrant and begin investigation without magistrate's permission. - **Bailable** means the accused has an automatic right to be released on bail. - First offense carries punishment of imprisonment up to **3 years** and fine. - **Note:** Subsequent offenses become **non-bailable** with imprisonment up to 5 years. *Non-cognizable and bailable under Indian law* - This is incorrect as the first offense of stalking is **cognizable**, not non-cognizable. - If it were non-cognizable, police would require a **magistrate's order** to investigate and arrest. *Non-cognizable and non-bailable under Indian law* - Both classifications are incorrect for the first offense. - The first offense of stalking is **cognizable and bailable**, not non-cognizable and non-bailable. *Cognizable and non-bailable under Indian law* - While correctly identifying the cognizable nature, this incorrectly classifies the first offense as non-bailable. - **Non-bailable** classification applies only to **subsequent offenses** of stalking under Section 354D IPC. - For first offense, bail is a matter of right, not court discretion.
Question 2: Which of the following does not refer to a cannabis preparation?
- A. Charas
- B. Afeem (Correct Answer)
- C. Reefer
- D. Sinsemilla
Explanation: ***Afeem*** - **Afeem** is a preparation of **opium**, which is derived from the **opium poppy** (Papaver somniferum), not cannabis. - Opium contains **opiates** like morphine and codeine, which have different psychoactive and pharmacological effects than cannabis. *Charas* - **Charas** is a form of **hashish** made from the resin of the cannabis plant, primarily from Indian cannabis strains. - It involves hand-rubbing the live plant to collect the resin, which is then rolled into balls or sticks. *Reefer* - **Reefer** is a slang term for a **marijuana cigarette** or a **joint**. - It refers to dried cannabis flowers rolled in paper for smoking. *Sinsemilla* - **Sinsemilla** refers to **unpollinated female cannabis plants** that produce a higher concentration of tetrahydrocannabinol (THC). - The term literally means "without seeds" (from Spanish "sin semilla") and is prized for its potency.
Internal Medicine
1 questionsAll are reversible causes of dementia except one.
NEET-PG 2015 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: All are reversible causes of dementia except one.
- A. Alzheimer's disease (Correct Answer)
- B. Hydrocephalus
- C. Meningoencephalitis
- D. Hypothyroidism
Explanation: ### Alzheimer's disease - Alzheimer's disease is the most common cause of **irreversible, progressive neurodegenerative dementia**, characterized by the accumulation of **amyloid plaques** and **neurofibrillary tangles**. - There is currently no cure for Alzheimer's disease, and treatments focus on symptom management rather than reversal. *Hypothyroidism* - **Severe or untreated hypothyroidism** can cause cognitive impairment and dementia-like symptoms, which are often reversible with **thyroid hormone replacement therapy**. - Symptoms like **memory loss**, **slowed thinking**, and confusion can improve significantly once **euthyroid state** is achieved. *Hydrocephalus* - **Normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH)** can cause a triad of symptoms including **gait disturbance**, **urinary incontinence**, and **dementia**, which can be reversible with a **shunt placement** [1]. - The cognitive decline in NPH is due to increased intracranial pressure affecting brain function, and surgical intervention can alleviate this pressure [1]. *Meningoencephalitis* - **Inflammation of the brain and its surrounding membranes** due to infection can lead to cognitive dysfunction and dementia, which may be reversible with **appropriate antimicrobial or antiviral treatment** [1]. - Early and aggressive treatment of the underlying infection is crucial for potential recovery of cognitive function and prevention of permanent damage.
Pharmacology
1 questionsAdverse effects of phenytoin include the following EXCEPT:
NEET-PG 2015 - Pharmacology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: Adverse effects of phenytoin include the following EXCEPT:
- A. Ataxia
- B. Hirsutism
- C. Hypercalcemia (Correct Answer)
- D. Lymphadenopathy
Explanation: ***Hypercalcemia*** - Phenytoin can actually lead to **hypocalcemia** due to its effect on vitamin D metabolism, increasing its degradation and leading to osteomalacia or rickets [1]. - Therefore, **hypercalcemia** is not an expected adverse effect of phenytoin use. *Lymphadenopathy* - **Generalized lymphadenopathy** is a known, though less common, adverse effect of phenytoin, sometimes mimicking lymphoma. - It's part of a broader hypersensitivity reaction that can occur with the drug. *Ataxia* - **Ataxia** is a common dose-dependent adverse effect of phenytoin, especially at higher therapeutic or toxic levels [1], [2]. - It manifests as impaired coordination and balance due to cerebellar dysfunction [1]. *Hirsutism* - **Hirsutism**, or excessive hair growth, is a well-known chronic side effect of phenytoin [1]. - This effect is more aesthetically concerning than medically dangerous and is particularly common in young women [1].
Physiology
1 questionsWhich of the following characteristics is shared by both active transport and facilitated diffusion?
NEET-PG 2015 - Physiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: Which of the following characteristics is shared by both active transport and facilitated diffusion?
- A. Does not require energy input
- B. Transports solute down concentration gradient
- C. Transports solute against concentration gradient
- D. Requires specific carrier proteins (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Requires specific carrier proteins*** - Both **active transport** and **facilitated diffusion** rely on specific **transmembrane proteins** to move substances across the cell membrane. - These carrier proteins bind to the specific molecule they transport, undergoing conformational changes that facilitate its movement. *Does not require energy input* - This statement is only true for **facilitated diffusion**, which is a form of passive transport. - **Active transport** requires an input of **metabolic energy**, typically in the form of ATP, to move substances. *Transports solute down concentration gradient* - This is characteristic of **facilitated diffusion**, where molecules move from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration. - **Active transport** moves solutes **against** their concentration gradient, requiring energy. *Transports solute against concentration gradient* - This is a defining feature of **active transport**, which allows cells to accumulate substances even when their external concentration is lower. - **Facilitated diffusion** moves solutes **down** their concentration gradient and cannot transport against a gradient.
Radiology
1 questionsWhat is the cardiothoracic ratio in children?
NEET-PG 2015 - Radiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: What is the cardiothoracic ratio in children?
- A. 30-35%
- B. 40-45%
- C. 50-55% (Correct Answer)
- D. 60-65%
Explanation: ***50-55%*** - The normal **cardiothoracic ratio** in children is generally considered to be **50-55%** on a **posterior-anterior (PA) chest X-ray**. - In **infants and young children (under 2 years)**, the ratio can be **up to 55-60%** due to relatively larger cardiac size and more horizontal positioning of the heart. - In **older children (over 2 years)**, the normal ratio approaches adult values of **less than 50%**. - A ratio consistently greater than 55% could indicate **cardiomegaly**, which warrants further investigation. *30-35%* - This range is typically too low and would suggest an **unusually small heart** for the chest cavity, which is not a normal finding in children. - A very low ratio like this is not characteristic of the pediatric population and may indicate technical issues with the radiograph. *40-45%* - While this range approaches normal values for **older children and adults**, it is generally on the lower side for the average **pediatric cardiothoracic ratio**. - This percentage alone is not the best answer when considering the entire pediatric age spectrum, including infants and younger children. *60-65%* - A cardiothoracic ratio in this range would typically be considered **abnormal** and indicative of **cardiomegaly** in children beyond infancy. - Such an elevated ratio would suggest an enlarged heart, prompting further cardiac evaluation including **echocardiography** to assess for structural heart disease.
Surgery
1 questionsIn case of polytrauma with multiple injuries to the chest, neck, and abdomen, what is the highest priority intervention?
NEET-PG 2015 - Surgery NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: In case of polytrauma with multiple injuries to the chest, neck, and abdomen, what is the highest priority intervention?
- A. Stabilization of the airway (Correct Answer)
- B. Vasopressors
- C. Assessing disability
- D. Stabilization of the cervical spine
Explanation: ***Stabilization of the airway*** - Maintaining a **patent airway** is the absolute first priority in any trauma patient (following the **ABCDE approach**), as inadequate oxygenation and ventilation can rapidly lead to irreversible brain damage and death. - In a patient with injuries to the chest, neck, and abdomen, the airway is particularly vulnerable to compromise from direct trauma, swelling, or aspiration. *Vasopressors* - Vasopressors are used to support blood pressure in cases of **hypotensive shock**, but establishing adequate ventilation and oxygenation (airway, breathing) must precede circulatory support. - Administering vasopressors without a patent airway and efficient breathing will not be effective and can be detrimental. *Assessing disability* - Assessing disability (neurological status) is part of the **D** in the **ABCDE approach**, which comes after addressing airway, breathing, and circulation. - While important, it is not the highest priority intervention as an immediate threat to life takes precedence. *Stabilization of the cervical spine* - While crucial in trauma (especially with neck injuries) to prevent further neurological damage, **cervical spine stabilization** is often performed concurrently or immediately after airway assessment and control, under the **"A" for Airway with cervical spine protection** principle. - However, establishing a patent airway without moving the neck (if possible) still takes absolute priority over full stabilization, as a blocked airway is an immediate life threat.
About NEET-PG 2015 Questions
This page contains 1414 questions from the NEET-PG 2015 paper, organised across 22 subjects for focused practice. Every question comes with the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the underlying concept. Subject-wise organisation lets you target specific areas and identify which topics carried the most weight in this particular year.
Practising year-wise papers is essential for understanding how the NEET-PG exam evolves — you can spot trending topics, gauge difficulty shifts, and benchmark your readiness against a real paper. To take your preparation further, download the Oncourse app for AI-driven performance insights, spaced repetition of questions you got wrong, and a personalised study plan built around your NEET-PG goals.