Cardiovascular Practice Questions

Q: A 2-month-old girl with a previous diagnosis of DiGeorge syndrome is brought to the emergency department with her parents following a seizure. Her mother states that the baby had been inconsolable all day and refused to feed. She was born at 39 weeks gestation via spontaneous vaginal delivery. She is up to date on all vaccines. Upon arrival to the hospital her heart rate is 120/min, respiratory rate is 40/min, and temperature of 37.0°C (98.6°F). On examination, she is afebrile and somnolent and her fontanelles are open and soft. While attempting to take her blood pressure, the patient’s arm and hand flex sharply and do not relax until the cuff is released. A light tap on the cheek results in an atypical facial muscle twitch. A CMP and CBC are drawn and sent for analysis. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

Hypocalcemia. ***Hypocalcemia*** - DiGeorge syndrome is associated with **thymic hypoplasia** and **parathyroid hypoplasia**, leading to **hypocalcemia** due to inadequate parathyroid hormone production. - The symptoms described, including seizures, **Chvostek's sign** (facial muscle twitch with light tap on cheek), and **Trousseau's sign** (carpal spasm with blood pressure cuff inflation), are classic manifestations of **neuromuscular irritability** caused by severe hypocalcemia. *Hypernatremia* - **Hypernatremia** is characterized by excessive sodium levels, typically presenting with symptoms like extreme thirst, lethargy, confusion, or seizures due to **cerebral dehydration**. - It does not cause the specific signs of neuromuscular excitability like Chvostek's or Trousseau's signs seen here. *Tetanus* - **Tetanus** is caused by the bacterium *Clostridium tetani* and manifests with painful muscle spasms, trismus (lockjaw), and opisthotonus, but does not present with Chvostek's or Trousseau's signs. - Furthermore, the child is described as being up to date on all vaccinations, making tetanus unlikely. *High fever* - A **high fever** can cause febrile seizures in young children, but the patient is explicitly stated to be **afebrile** (37.0°C or 98.6°F), ruling out fever as the cause of the seizure. - It also would not explain the other specific signs of neuromuscular irritability. *Meningitis* - **Meningitis** is an inflammation of the meninges, typically presenting with fever, irritability, lethargy, nuchal rigidity, and bulging fontanelles in infants. - The patient is **afebrile** and has **soft, open fontanelles**, and her symptoms are more consistent with metabolic derangements rather than central nervous system infection.

Q: A 17-year-old teenager presents to the clinic with her parents complaining of headaches and loss of vision which began insidiously 3 months ago. She describes her headaches as throbbing, mostly on her forehead, and severe enough to affect her daily activities. She has not experienced menarche. Past medical history is noncontributory. She takes no medication. Both of her parents are alive and well. Today, her blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, the heart rate is 90/min, the respiratory rate is 17/min, and the temperature is 37.0°C (98.6°F). Breasts and pubic hair development are in Tanner stage I. Blood work is collected and an MRI is performed (the result is shown). Decreased production of which of the following hormones is the most likely explanation for the patient's signs and symptoms?

Gonadotropins. **Gonadotropins** - The MRI image shows a **pituitary mass** (indicated by the red arrow) in a 17-year-old girl with **amenorrhea** (has not experienced menarche) and **Tanner stage I breast and pubic hair development**. - This clinical picture, coupled with the mass effect, suggests **hypogonadotropic hypogonadism** due to compression of the pituitary gland, leading to insufficient production of **gonadotropins** (LH and FSH), which are essential for pubertal development and menstrual cycles. *Antidiuretic hormone* - Deficiency of ADH primarily causes **diabetes insipidus**, characterized by **polyuria** and **polydipsia**, which are not mentioned in this patient's symptoms. - While a pituitary mass can affect ADH production, the primary clinical presentation here is related to pubertal delay. *Adrenocorticotropic hormone* - ACTH deficiency would lead to **adrenal insufficiency**, presenting with symptoms such as **fatigue, weakness, weight loss, hypotension, and electrolyte disturbances**. These symptoms are not described in the patient. - Her vital signs (e.g., blood pressure) are within normal limits. *Prolactin* - Elevated prolactin (hyperprolactinemia) can cause **amenorrhea** and **galactorrhea** (if the patient has reached puberty), but it is usually due to a **prolactinoma** or stalk compression. - While a pituitary mass could potentially affect prolactin, the lack of pubertal development (Tanner stage I) points more directly to a general gonadotropin deficiency rather than isolated prolactinopathy. *Thyroid-stimulating hormone* - TSH deficiency would result in **hypothyroidism**, characterized by symptoms like **fatigue, weight gain, cold intolerance, and bradycardia**. - The patient's vital signs are normal, and symptoms of hypothyroidism are not described.

Q: A 22-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 2-month history of episodes of shortness of breath, lightheadedness, and palpitations. During the examination, he reports the onset of one such episode. His pulse is 170/min and regular, respirations are 22/min, and blood pressure is 100/65 mm Hg. An ECG shows a regular narrow complex tachycardia; no P waves are visible. A common clinical maneuver to diagnose and/or relieve the patient's symptoms involves stimulation of which of the following nerves?

Vagus. ***Vagus*** - **Vagal maneuvers** (carotid sinus massage, Valsalva maneuver, diving reflex) are the standard clinical approach to terminate **supraventricular tachycardia (SVT)**. - These maneuvers increase **parasympathetic tone** via the **vagus nerve (CN X)** to the **SA and AV nodes**, slowing conduction and heart rate. - Carotid sinus massage stimulates baroreceptors → afferent signals via glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) → medullary cardiovascular center → **increased efferent vagal output** to the heart. - The **vagus nerve is the therapeutic effector** that slows the heart and terminates the arrhythmia. *Glossopharyngeal* - The **glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX)** carries the **afferent (sensory)** signals from carotid sinus baroreceptors to the brainstem. - While technically involved in the reflex arc, the therapeutic effect comes from increased **vagal output**, not glossopharyngeal stimulation. - Clinically, these are called "vagal maneuvers" because the vagus nerve mediates the therapeutic response. *Phrenic* - The **phrenic nerve** (C3-C5) innervates the **diaphragm** and controls breathing. - Not involved in heart rate regulation or termination of SVT. *Trigeminal* - The **trigeminal nerve (CN V)** provides facial sensation and motor innervation to muscles of mastication. - The **diving reflex** (cold water immersion to face) can trigger bradycardia via trigeminal-vagal reflex, but this is not the standard maneuver for SVT. - Carotid sinus massage does not involve the trigeminal nerve. *Recurrent laryngeal* - The **recurrent laryngeal nerve** is a branch of the vagus nerve that innervates **intrinsic laryngeal muscles**. - Controls vocal cord movement, not cardiac function. - Not involved in vagal maneuvers for SVT.

Q: Under what physiologic state is the endogenous human analog of nesiritide produced?

Increased ventricular stretch. ***Increased ventricular stretch*** - Nesiritide is a recombinant form of **B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP)**, which is endogenously produced by the **ventricular myocardium** in response to increased wall stress or stretch. - This occurs in conditions like **heart failure**, where the ventricles are overfilled and experience elevated pressure. *Increased circulatory volume presenting to the kidneys* - While increased circulatory volume can lead to **atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)** release from the atria, the primary stimulus for BNP (the analog of nesiritide) production is **ventricular stretch**, not solely renal circulatory volume. - ANP and BNP both contribute to **natriuresis** and vasodilation, but their primary release sites and triggers differ. *Increased external stress* - Increased external stress typically activates the **sympathetic nervous system** and the **hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis**, leading to the release of **catecholamines** and **cortisol**. - This response is largely independent of **natriuretic peptide** production. *Increased intracranial pressure* - Increased intracranial pressure can trigger the **Cushing reflex**, characterized by **hypertension**, **bradycardia**, and irregular respiration. - It does not directly stimulate the release of BNP or its analog nesiritide; rather, it represents a response to **cerebral ischemia**. *Decreased circulatory volume presenting to the kidneys* - **Decreased circulatory volume** would activate the **renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS)** and **antidiuretic hormone (ADH)**, leading to **fluid retention** and vasoconstriction. - This is opposite to the actions of natriuretic peptides, which promote **diuresis** and vasodilation.

Q: A 42-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician with 2 weeks of abdominal pain. She says that the pain is squeezing in character and gets worse after she eats food. The pain is particularly bad after she eats dairy products so she has begun to avoid ice cream and cheese. Furthermore, she has noticed that she has been experiencing episodes of nausea associated with abdominal pain in the last 4 days. Physical exam reveals tenderness to palpation and rebound tenderness in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen. The molecule that is most likely responsible for the increased pain this patient experiences after eating fatty foods is most likely secreted by which of the following cells?

I cells. ***I cells*** - The patient's symptoms (worsening pain after fatty meals, particularly dairy; right upper quadrant tenderness; nausea and rebound tenderness) are highly suggestive of **acute cholecystitis**, likely due to **gallstones**. - **Cholecystokinin (CCK)**, secreted by intestinal I cells, is released in response to dietary fats and amino acids, stimulating gallbladder contraction. In the presence of a gallstone obstructing the cystic duct, this contraction causes increased pressure and pain. *G cells* - **G cells** primarily secrete **gastrin** in the stomach, which stimulates gastric acid secretion and mucosal growth. - While gastrin is involved in digestion, it does not directly mediate the pain associated with gallbladder contraction in response to fatty meals. *Chief cells* - **Chief cells** in the stomach secrete **pepsinogen** and gastric lipase, which are involved in protein and fat digestion, respectively. - Their secretions are not directly involved in triggering gallbladder contraction or the associated pain in cholecystitis. *D cells* - **D cells** secrete **somatostatin**, an inhibitory hormone that suppresses the release of many gastrointestinal hormones, including gastrin, secretin, and CCK. - Somatostatin would likely *reduce* gallbladder motility rather than cause the painful contractions seen in this patient. *S cells* - **S cells** in the duodenum secrete **secretin** in response to acidic chyme. Secretin primarily stimulates the pancreas to release bicarbonate and water. - While secretin plays a role in digestion, it does not directly cause gallbladder contraction or the post-fatty meal pain described.

Q: Paramedics respond to a call regarding an 18-year-old male with severe sudden-onset heart palpitations. The patient reports symptoms of chest pain, fatigue, and dizziness. Upon examination, his heart rate is 175/min and regular. His blood pressure is 110/75 mm Hg. Gentle massage below the level of the left mandible elicits an immediate improvement in the patient, as his heart rate returns to 70/min. What was the mechanism of action of this maneuver?

Slowing conduction in the AV node. ***Slowing conduction in the AV node*** - The maneuver described, **carotid sinus massage**, stimulates the **baroreceptors** in the carotid artery. This increases **parasympathetic (vagal) tone**. - Increased vagal tone primarily acts on the **AV node** to slow its conduction velocity, thereby terminating reentrant tachycardias that depend on AV nodal conduction, such as AVNRT and AVRT. *Decreasing the length of phase 4 of the SA node myocytes* - **Carotid sinus massage** would actually **increase** the length of phase 4 (spontaneous depolarization) in SA node myocytes, leading to a slower heart rate. - A shorter phase 4 would result in a faster heart rate, which is the opposite of the observed effect. *Decreasing the firing rate of carotid baroreceptors* - The maneuver **stimulates** the carotid baroreceptors, leading to an **increased** firing rate. - A decreased firing rate would normally activate the **sympathetic nervous system**, increasing heart rate, rather than slowing it. *Increasing the refractory period in ventricular myocytes* - While parasympathetic stimulation does affect the heart, its primary action is not to directly increase the **refractory period** in ventricular myocytes. This effect is more directly related to antiarrhythmic drugs. - Carotid massage primarily affects **nodal tissue** (SA and AV nodes) rather than ventricular myocardium directly. *Increasing sympathetic tone in systemic arteries* - Carotid sinus massage **increases parasympathetic tone** and **decreases sympathetic tone**, including that to systemic arteries. - Increased sympathetic tone would lead to **vasoconstriction** and potentially an **increased heart rate**, which is contrary to the therapeutic effect observed.

Q: A 72-year-old man comes to the physician for a routine physical examination. He does not take any medications. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show a calcium concentration of 8.5 mg/dL, a phosphorus concentration of 3.1 mg/dL, an elevated bone-specific alkaline phosphatase concentration, and a normal urine deoxypyridinoline concentration. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this patient's laboratory abnormalities?

Increased osteoblast activity. ***Increased osteoblast activity*** - An **elevated bone-specific alkaline phosphatase** (BSAP) indicates increased **osteoblast activity**, as BSAP is an enzyme produced by osteoblasts during bone formation. - The combination of **normal calcium, phosphorus**, and **urine deoxypyridinoline** (a marker of bone resorption) suggests a normal overall mineral balance despite increased bone formation, which can be seen in healthy aging or mild stress. *Decreased parathyroid chief cell activity* - **Decreased parathyroid chief cell activity** would lead to **decreased parathyroid hormone (PTH)**. - Low PTH typically causes **low calcium** levels and **high phosphorus** levels, which contradicts the normal calcium and phosphorus seen in this patient. *Decreased osteoclast activity* - **Decreased osteoclast activity** would result in **reduced bone resorption**, leading to **lower urine deoxypyridinoline** levels. - If osteoclast activity were significantly decreased in isolation, it would lead to increased bone density or abnormal bone remodeling that isn't supported by the elevated BSAP as the primary finding. *Increased chondroblast activity* - **Increased chondroblast activity** is primarily associated with **cartilage formation** and would not directly explain an elevated **bone-specific alkaline phosphatase**. - BSAP is a marker of **osteoblastic activity** in bone, not chondroblastic activity in cartilage. *Increased parafollicular C-cell activity* - **Increased parafollicular C-cell activity** would lead to **increased calcitonin** secretion. - Calcitonin’s primary effect is to **lower blood calcium** by inhibiting osteoclasts, which would not typically cause an elevated BSAP.

Q: A 45-year-old executive travels frequently around the world. He often has difficulty falling asleep at night when he returns home. You suspect a circadian rhythm disorder is responsible for his pathology. Which of the following regulates the circadian rhythm?

Suprachiasmatic nucleus of hypothalamus. ***Suprachiasmatic nucleus of hypothalamus*** - The **suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN)** is considered the body's **master circadian clock**, receiving direct input from the retina about light levels. - It plays a crucial role in regulating various bodily functions like sleep-wake cycles and hormone release according to the 24-hour day. *Ventromedial area of hypothalamus* - The **ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus** is primarily involved in **satiety** and **feeding behavior**. - Damage to this area can lead to **hyperphagia** and obesity, not circadian rhythm disturbances. *Anterior hypothalamus* - The **anterior hypothalamus** is mainly involved in **thermoregulation**, specifically **heat dissipation**. - It also plays a role in **parasympathetic activities** but is not the primary regulator of circadian rhythms. *Supraoptic area of hypothalamus* - The **supraoptic nucleus** is responsible for producing **vasopressin (ADH)** and **oxytocin**, which are then released by the posterior pituitary. - These hormones are crucial for **water balance** and social bonding, not circadian rhythm regulation. *Posterior hypothalamus* - The **posterior hypothalamus** is responsible for **heat conservation** and sympathetic nervous system activation. - It helps maintain **body temperature** during cold exposure but does not directly control circadian rhythm.

Q: A 47-year-old Hispanic man presents with complaints of recent heat intolerance and rapid heart rate. The patient has also experienced recent unintentional weight loss of 15 pounds. Physical exam reveals tachycardia and skin that is warm to the touch. A radioactive iodine uptake scan of the thyroid reveals several focal nodules of increased iodine uptake. Prior to this study, the physician had also ordered a serum analysis that will most likely show which of the following?

Low TSH and high T4. ***Low TSH and high T4*** - The patient's symptoms (heat intolerance, rapid heart rate, weight loss, tachycardia, warm skin) are classic for **hyperthyroidism**. - In primary hyperthyroidism, the thyroid gland overproduces **thyroid hormones (T4 and T3)**, which then feedback to inhibit TSH release from the pituitary, leading to **low TSH**. *High TSH and low T4* - This pattern is characteristic of **primary hypothyroidism**, where the thyroid gland is underactive, leading to low T4 and a compensatory high TSH. - The patient's symptoms are inconsistent with hypothyroidism. *High TSH and normal T4* - This could indicate **subclinical hypothyroidism** or a resolving thyroiditis, neither of which aligns with the patient's overt hyperthyroid symptoms. - In subclinical hypothyroidism, there's insufficient T4 to suppress TSH, but T4 levels remain within the normal range. *Low TSH and low T4* - This pattern suggests **central (secondary or tertiary) hypothyroidism**, where the pituitary or hypothalamus is not producing enough TSH, leading to low T4. - The patient's symptoms of hyperthyroidism contradict this diagnosis. *High TSH and high T4* - This uncommon pattern can be seen in cases of **TSH-secreting pituitary adenoma** (secondary hyperthyroidism) or **thyroid hormone resistance**. - However, the focal nodules of increased iodine uptake described in the radioactive iodine uptake scan strongly point to a primary thyroid cause of hyperthyroidism, making this less likely.

Q: A 70 year-old man comes to the physician for difficulty swallowing for 6 months. During this time, he has occasionally coughed up undigested food. He did not have weight loss or fever. Four weeks ago, he had an episode of sore throat, that resolved spontaneously. He has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 5 years. He has gastroesophageal reflux disease and osteoporosis. Current medications include alendronate and omeprazole. His temperature is 37.0°C (98.6°F), pulse is 84/min, and blood pressure is 130/90 mmHg. On examination, he has foul-smelling breath and a fluctuant mass on the right neck. Which of the following is most likely involved in the pathogenesis of this patient's symptoms?

Deep neck space infection. ***Deep neck space infection*** - The patient's presentation with **foul-smelling breath**, difficulty swallowing, a **fluctuant mass on the right neck**, and a recent episode of sore throat are highly suggestive of an evolving deep neck space infection, likely a **peritonsillar abscess** or another neck abscess. - While many symptoms can be explained by a Zenker's diverticulum (undigested food, no weight loss), the **fluctuant neck mass** points more towards an infectious process like a deep neck space infection. *Degeneration of neurons in the esophageal wall* - This typically refers to **achalasia**, characterized by **dysphagia for both solids and liquids**, regurgitation, and sometimes weight loss. - While regurgitation of undigested food can occur, the presence of a **fluctuant neck mass** and foul-smelling breath is not a typical feature of achalasia. *Abnormal esophageal motor function* - This general category includes disorders like **achalasia** and **esophageal spasm**, which can cause dysphagia and regurgitation. - However, the specific finding of a **fluctuant neck mass** is not explained by primary esophageal motility disorders. *Adverse effect of medication* - **Alendronate** can cause **esophagitis** leading to primary dysphagia and pain, but not typically a fluctuant neck mass or regurgitation of undigested food without weight loss. - **Omeprazole** is used to treat GERD and is unlikely to cause these specific symptoms. *Cellular dysplasia* - **Esophageal dysplasia** (often due to **Barrett's esophagus** from GERD) can lead to **esophageal cancer**, which would present with progressive dysphagia, **significant weight loss**, and sometimes pain. - The patient has no weight loss and the fluctuant mass is not typical for primary esophageal malignancy.

Question 1

A 2-month-old girl with a previous diagnosis of DiGeorge syndrome is brought to the emergency department with her parents following a seizure. Her mother states that the baby had been inconsolable all day and refused to feed. She was born at 39 weeks gestation via spontaneous vaginal delivery. She is up to date on all vaccines. Upon arrival to the hospital her heart rate is 120/min, respiratory rate is 40/min, and temperature of 37.0°C (98.6°F). On examination, she is afebrile and somnolent and her fontanelles are open and soft. While attempting to take her blood pressure, the patient’s arm and hand flex sharply and do not relax until the cuff is released. A light tap on the cheek results in an atypical facial muscle twitch. A CMP and CBC are drawn and sent for analysis. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

Accepted Answer

Hypocalcemia

Answer

Hypernatremia

Answer

Tetanus

Answer

High fever

Answer

Meningitis

Question 2

A 17-year-old teenager presents to the clinic with her parents complaining of headaches and loss of vision which began insidiously 3 months ago. She describes her headaches as throbbing, mostly on her forehead, and severe enough to affect her daily activities. She has not experienced menarche. Past medical history is noncontributory. She takes no medication. Both of her parents are alive and well. Today, her blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, the heart rate is 90/min, the respiratory rate is 17/min, and the temperature is 37.0°C (98.6°F). Breasts and pubic hair development are in Tanner stage I. Blood work is collected and an MRI is performed (the result is shown). Decreased production of which of the following hormones is the most likely explanation for the patient's signs and symptoms?

Accepted Answer

Gonadotropins

Answer

Antidiuretic hormone

Answer

Adrenocorticotropic hormone

Answer

Prolactin

Answer

Thyroid-stimulating hormone

Question 3

A 22-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 2-month history of episodes of shortness of breath, lightheadedness, and palpitations. During the examination, he reports the onset of one such episode. His pulse is 170/min and regular, respirations are 22/min, and blood pressure is 100/65 mm Hg. An ECG shows a regular narrow complex tachycardia; no P waves are visible. A common clinical maneuver to diagnose and/or relieve the patient's symptoms involves stimulation of which of the following nerves?

Accepted Answer

Vagus

Answer

Glossopharyngeal

Answer

Phrenic

Answer

Trigeminal

Answer

Recurrent laryngeal

Question 4

Under what physiologic state is the endogenous human analog of nesiritide produced?

Accepted Answer

Increased ventricular stretch

Answer

Increased circulatory volume presenting to the kidneys

Answer

Increased external stress

Answer

Increased intracranial pressure

Answer

Decreased circulatory volume presenting to the kidneys

Question 5

A 42-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician with 2 weeks of abdominal pain. She says that the pain is squeezing in character and gets worse after she eats food. The pain is particularly bad after she eats dairy products so she has begun to avoid ice cream and cheese. Furthermore, she has noticed that she has been experiencing episodes of nausea associated with abdominal pain in the last 4 days. Physical exam reveals tenderness to palpation and rebound tenderness in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen. The molecule that is most likely responsible for the increased pain this patient experiences after eating fatty foods is most likely secreted by which of the following cells?

Accepted Answer

I cells

Answer

G cells

Answer

Chief cells

Answer

D cells

Answer

S cells

Question 6

Paramedics respond to a call regarding an 18-year-old male with severe sudden-onset heart palpitations. The patient reports symptoms of chest pain, fatigue, and dizziness. Upon examination, his heart rate is 175/min and regular. His blood pressure is 110/75 mm Hg. Gentle massage below the level of the left mandible elicits an immediate improvement in the patient, as his heart rate returns to 70/min. What was the mechanism of action of this maneuver?

Accepted Answer

Slowing conduction in the AV node

Answer

Decreasing the length of phase 4 of the SA node myocytes

Answer

Decreasing the firing rate of carotid baroreceptors

Answer

Increasing the refractory period in ventricular myocytes

Answer

Increasing sympathetic tone in systemic arteries

Question 7

A 72-year-old man comes to the physician for a routine physical examination. He does not take any medications. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show a calcium concentration of 8.5 mg/dL, a phosphorus concentration of 3.1 mg/dL, an elevated bone-specific alkaline phosphatase concentration, and a normal urine deoxypyridinoline concentration. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this patient's laboratory abnormalities?

Accepted Answer

Increased osteoblast activity

Answer

Decreased parathyroid chief cell activity

Answer

Decreased osteoclast activity

Answer

Increased chondroblast activity

Answer

Increased parafollicular C-cell activity

Question 8

A 45-year-old executive travels frequently around the world. He often has difficulty falling asleep at night when he returns home. You suspect a circadian rhythm disorder is responsible for his pathology. Which of the following regulates the circadian rhythm?

Accepted Answer

Suprachiasmatic nucleus of hypothalamus

Answer

Ventromedial area of hypothalamus

Answer

Anterior hypothalamus

Answer

Supraoptic area of hypothalamus

Answer

Posterior hypothalamus

Question 9

A 47-year-old Hispanic man presents with complaints of recent heat intolerance and rapid heart rate. The patient has also experienced recent unintentional weight loss of 15 pounds. Physical exam reveals tachycardia and skin that is warm to the touch. A radioactive iodine uptake scan of the thyroid reveals several focal nodules of increased iodine uptake. Prior to this study, the physician had also ordered a serum analysis that will most likely show which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Low TSH and high T4

Answer

High TSH and low T4

Answer

High TSH and normal T4

Answer

Low TSH and low T4

Answer

High TSH and high T4

Question 10

A 70 year-old man comes to the physician for difficulty swallowing for 6 months. During this time, he has occasionally coughed up undigested food. He did not have weight loss or fever. Four weeks ago, he had an episode of sore throat, that resolved spontaneously. He has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 5 years. He has gastroesophageal reflux disease and osteoporosis. Current medications include alendronate and omeprazole. His temperature is 37.0°C (98.6°F), pulse is 84/min, and blood pressure is 130/90 mmHg. On examination, he has foul-smelling breath and a fluctuant mass on the right neck. Which of the following is most likely involved in the pathogenesis of this patient's symptoms?

Accepted Answer

Deep neck space infection

Answer

Degeneration of neurons in the esophageal wall

Answer

Abnormal esophageal motor function

Answer

Adverse effect of medication

Answer

Cellular dysplasia

Cardiovascular — MCQs

Cardiovascular — MCQs

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