Labor Complications — MCQs

A 40-year-old gravida 4 para 2 woman presents with urinary incontinence requesting definitive treatment. She started experiencing urinary incontinence when coughing, laughing, or exercising about three months ago. Symptoms have not improved with behavioral changes or Kegel exercises. Past medical history is significant for her last pregnancy which was complicated by an arrest of descent and a grade 3 episiotomy. She currently takes no medications. A review of systems is significant for constipation for the last few months. Rectal and vaginal exams are normal. Which of the following is the mechanism that underlies the best course of treatment for this patient?

A 36-year-old woman comes to the physician for a 2-month history of urinary incontinence and a vaginal mass. She has a history of five full-term normal vaginal deliveries. She gave birth to a healthy newborn 2-months ago. Since then she has felt a sensation of vaginal fullness and a firm mass in the lower vagina. She has loss of urine when she coughs, sneezes, or exercises. Pelvic examination shows an irreducible pink globular mass protruding out of the vagina. A loss of integrity of which of the following ligaments is most likely involved in this patient's condition?

A 32-year-old G2P0 presents at 37 weeks gestation with a watery vaginal discharge. The antepartum course was remarkable for an abnormal ultrasound finding at 20 weeks gestation. The vital signs are as follows: blood pressure, 110/80 mm Hg; heart rate, 91/min; respiratory rate, 13/min; and temperature, 36.4℃ (97.5℉). The fetal heart rate is 141/min. On speculum examination, there were no vaginal or cervical lesions, but there is a continuous watery vaginal discharge with traces of blood. The discharge is fern- and nitrite-positive. Soon after the initial examination, the bleeding increases. Fetal monitoring shows a heart rate of 103/min with late decelerations. Which of the following ultrasound findings was most likely present in the patient and predisposed her to the developed condition?

A 29-year-old woman, gravida 1, para 0, at 36 weeks' gestation is brought to the emergency department after an episode of dizziness and vomiting followed by loss of consciousness lasting 1 minute. She reports that her symptoms started after lying down on her back to rest, as she felt tired during yoga class. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated. On arrival, she is diaphoretic and pale. Her pulse is 115/min and blood pressure is 90/58 mm Hg. On examination, the patient is lying in the supine position with a fundal height of 36 cm. There is a prolonged fetal heart rate deceleration to 80/min. Which of the following is the most appropriate action to reverse this patient's symptoms in the future?

A 39-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2, at 32 weeks' gestation comes to the emergency department 1 hour after the sudden onset of severe abdominal pain and nausea. She has had one episode of nonbloody vomiting. Pregnancy has been uncomplicated, except for a blood pressure measurement of 150/90 mm Hg on her last prenatal visit. Her first child was delivered vaginally; her second child was delivered by lower segment transverse cesarean section because of a nonreassuring fetal heart rate. She appears anxious and pale. Her temperature is 36.1°C (96°F), pulse is 115/min, and blood pressure is 92/65 mm Hg. Extremities are cool and clammy. Pelvic examination shows a rigid, tender uterus. The cervix is 30% effaced and 1 cm dilated; the vertex is at -1 station. The fetal heart rate is 100/min. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A 24-year-old primigravida presents at 36 weeks gestation with vaginal bleeding, mild abdominal pain, and uterine contractions that appeared after bumping into a handrail. The vital signs are as follows: blood pressure 130/80 mm Hg, heart rate 79/min, respiratory rate 12/min, and temperature 36.5℃ (97.7℉). The fetal heart rate was 145/min. Uterine fundus is at the level of the xiphoid process. Slight uterine tenderness and contractions are noted on palpation. The perineum is bloody. The gynecologic examination shows no vaginal or cervical lesions. The cervix is long and closed. Streaks of bright red blood are passing through the cervix. A transabdominal ultrasound shows the placenta to be attached to the lateral uterine wall with a marginal retroplacental hematoma (an approximate volume of 150 ml). The maternal hematocrit is 36%. What is the next best step in the management of this patient?

Three hours after the onset of labor, a 39-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 40 weeks' gestation has sudden worsening of abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. 18 months ago her first child was delivered by a lower segment transverse cesarean section because of cephalopelvic disproportion. Her temperature is 37.5°C (99.5°F), pulse is 120/min, respirations are 20/min, and blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg. Examination shows abdominal tenderness and the absence of uterine contractions. The cervix is 100% effaced and 10 cm dilated; the vertex is at -3 station. An hour before, the vertex was at 0 station. Cardiotocography shows fetal bradycardia, late decelerations, and decreased amplitude of uterine contractions. Which of the following is the most specific feature of this patient's condition?

A 16-year-old girl presents to the emergency department complaining of acute bilateral lower quadrant abdominal pain. She states she is nauseous and reports a 24-hour history of multiple episodes of vomiting. She admits to having unprotected sex with multiple partners. Her temperature is 102.0°F (38.9°C). Physical examination reveals bilateral lower quadrant tenderness. Bimanual pelvic exam reveals cervical exudate and cervical motion tenderness. Her β-HCG is within normal limits. Transvaginal ultrasound reveals a tubular complex lesion located in the right lower quadrant. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in the treatment of this patient?

A previously healthy 20-year-old woman comes to her physician because of pain during sexual intercourse. She recently became sexually active with her boyfriend. She has had no other sexual partners. She is frustrated because she has consistently been experiencing a severe, sharp vaginal pain on penetration. She has tried lubricants without significant relief. She has not been able to use tampons in the past due to similar pain with tampon insertion. External vulvar examination shows no abnormalities. She is unable to undergo a bimanual or speculum exam due to intracoital pain with attempted digit or speculum insertion. Testing for Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae is negative. Which of the following is the best next step in management?

A 28-year-old woman at 30 weeks gestation is rushed to the emergency room with the sudden onset of vaginal bleeding accompanied by intense abdominopelvic pain and uterine contractions. The intensity and frequency of pain have increased in the past 2 hours. This is her 1st pregnancy and she was diagnosed with gestational diabetes several weeks ago. Her vital signs include a blood pressure of 124/68 mm Hg, a pulse of 77/min, a respiratory rate of 22/min, and a temperature of 37.0°C (98.6°F). The abdominal examination is positive for a firm and tender uterus. An immediate cardiotocographic evaluation reveals a fetal heart rate of 150/min with prolonged and repetitive decelerations and high-frequency and low-amplitude uterine contractions. Your attending physician warns you about delaying the vaginal physical examination until a quick sonographic evaluation is completed. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?