Labor Complications — MCQs

A 44-year-old G5P3 presents with a 2-year history of leaking urine upon exerting herself, coughing, and laughing. Her symptoms are only present in the daytime. She denies urgency, nocturia, or painful urination. She has no menstrual cycle disturbances. Her husband is her only sexual partner. She has a 12 pack-year smoking history, a 3-year history of chronic bronchitis, and a 3-year history of arterial hypertension. She takes fosinopril (10 mg), metoprolol (50 mg), and atorvastatin (10 mg) daily. Her weight is 88 kg (194 lb) and the height is 160 cm (5.2 ft). On examination, the vital signs are as follows: blood pressure 130/80 mm Hg, heart rate 78/min, respiratory rate 14/min, and temperature 36.7℃ (98℉). Lung auscultation revealed bilateral lower lobe rales. No costovertebral angle or suprapubic tenderness are present. Which of the following findings is most likely to be revealed by the gynecologic examination?

A 21-year-old woman presents to the women’s clinic with chronic pelvic pain, especially during sexual intercourse. She also reports new onset yellowish vaginal discharge. She has no significant past medical history. She does not take contraceptive pills as she has had a copper intrauterine device placed. She smokes 2–3 cigarettes every day. She drinks beer on weekends. She admits to being sexually active with over 10 partners since the age of 14. Her blood pressure is 118/66 mm Hg, the heart rate is 68/min, the respiratory rate is 12/min and the temperature is 39.1°C (102.3°F). On physical examination she appears uncomfortable but alert and oriented. Her heart and lung examinations are within normal limits. Bimanual exam reveals a tender adnexa and uterus with cervical motion tenderness. Whiff test is negative and vaginal pH is greater than 4.5. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A 30-year-old primigravid woman at 16 weeks' gestation comes to the emergency department because of vaginal bleeding. She has had spotting for the last 2 days. She has had standard prenatal care. A viable uterine pregnancy was confirmed on ultrasonography during a prenatal care visit 2 weeks ago. She reports recurrent episodes of pain in her right wrist and both knees. Until pregnancy, she smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for the past 11 years. Pelvic examination shows an open cervical os and blood within the vaginal vault. Laboratory studies show: Hemoglobin 9.6 g/dL Leukocyte count 8,200/mm3 Platelet count 140,000/mm3 Prothrombin time 14 seconds Partial thromboplastin time 46 seconds Serum Na+ 136 mEq/L K+ 4.1 mEq/L Cl- 101 mEq/L Urea nitrogen 12 mg/dL Creatinine 1.3 mg/dL AST 20 U/L ALT 15 U/L Ultrasonography shows an intrauterine pregnancy and no fetal cardiac activity. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this patient's examination findings?

A 49-year-old woman comes to the office complaining of 2 weeks of urinary incontinence. She says she first noticed some light, urinary dribbling that would increase with sneezing or coughing. This dribble soon worsened, soaking through a pad every 3 hours. She denies any fevers, chills, abdominal pain, hematuria, dysuria, abnormal vaginal discharge, or increased urinary frequency. The patient had a bilateral tubal ligation 3 weeks ago. Her last menstrual period was 2 weeks ago. Her menses are regular and last 5 days. She has had 3 pregnancies that each resulted in uncomplicated, term vaginal deliveries. Her last pregnancy was 2 years ago. The patient has hypothyroidism and takes daily levothyroxine. She denies tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drug use. She has no history of sexually transmitted diseases. She is sexually active with her husband of 25 years. Her BMI is 26 kg/m^2. On physical examination, the abdomen is soft, nondistended, and nontender without palpable masses or hepatosplenomegaly. Rectal tone is normal. The uterus is anteverted, mobile, and nontender. There are no adnexal masses. Urine is seen pooling in the vaginal vault. Urinalysis is unremarkable. Which of the following is next best step in diagnosis?

A 30-year-old woman, gravida 4, para 3, at 39 weeks' gestation comes to the hospital 20 minutes after the onset of vaginal bleeding. She has not received prenatal care. Her third child was delivered by lower segment transverse cesarean section because of a footling breech presentation. Her other two children were delivered vaginally. Her temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), pulse is 86/min, respirations are 18/min, and blood pressure is 132/74 mm Hg. The abdomen is nontender, and no contractions are felt. The fetus is in a vertex presentation. The fetal heart rate is 96/min. Per speculum examination reveals ruptured membranes and severe bleeding from the external os. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A 32-year-old woman gravida 2, para 1, at 35 weeks' gestation is admitted to the hospital 1 hour after spontaneous rupture of membranes. She has had mild abdominal discomfort and nausea for a day. Her pregnancy has been complicated by gestational diabetes, which is controlled with a strict diet. Her first child was delivered by lower segment transverse cesarean section because of placental abruption. Current medications include iron and vitamin supplements. Her immunizations are up-to-date. Her temperature is 38.6°C (101.5°F), pulse is 122/min, and blood pressure is 110/78 mm Hg. Abdominal examination shows severe, diffuse tenderness throughout the lower quadrants. Speculum examination confirms rupture of membranes with drainage of malodorous, blood-tinged fluid. Ultrasonography shows the fetus in a cephalic presentation. The fetal heart rate is 175/min and reactive with no decelerations. Laboratory studies show: Hemoglobin 11.1 g/dL Leukocyte count 13,100/mm3 Serum Na+ 136 mEq/L Cl- 101 mEq/L K+ 3.9 mEq/L Glucose 108 mg/dL Creatinine 1.1 mg/dL Urine Protein Negative Glucose 1+ Blood Negative WBC 3–4/hpf RBC Negative Nitrites Negative Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A 32-year-old female presents to her primary care provider with pelvic pain. She reports that for the last several years, she has had chronic pain that is worst just before her menstrual period. Over the past two months, she has also had worsening pain during intercourse. She denies dysuria, vaginal discharge, or vaginal pruritus. The patient has never been pregnant and previously used a copper intrauterine device (IUD) for contraception, but she had the IUD removed a year ago because it worsened her menorrhagia. She has now been using combined oral contraceptive pills (OCPs) for nearly a year. The patient reports improvement in her menorrhagia on the OCPs but denies any improvement in her pain. Her past medical history is otherwise unremarkable. Her temperature is 98.0°F (36.7°C), blood pressure is 124/73 mmHg, pulse is 68/min, and respirations are 12/min. The patient has tenderness to palpation during vaginal exam with lateral displacement of the cervix. A pelvic ultrasound shows no abnormalities, and a urine pregnancy test is negative. Which of the following is the best next step in management to confirm the diagnosis?

A previously healthy 25-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department because of a 1-hour history of sudden severe lower abdominal pain. The pain started shortly after having sexual intercourse. The pain is worse with movement and urination. The patient had several urinary tract infections as a child. She is sexually active with her boyfriend and uses condoms inconsistently. She cannot remember when her last menstrual period was. She appears uncomfortable and pale. Her temperature is 37.5°C (99.5°F), pulse is 110/min, and blood pressure is 90/60 mm Hg. Abdominal examination shows a palpable, tender right adnexal mass. Her hemoglobin concentration is 10 g/dL and her hematocrit is 30%. A urine pregnancy test is negative. Pelvic ultrasound shows a 5 x 3-cm right ovarian sac-like structure with surrounding echogenic fluid around the structure and the uterus. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient's condition?

A 31-year-old G1P0 woman with a history of hypertension presents to the emergency department because she believes that she is in labor. She is in her 38th week of pregnancy and her course has thus far been uncomplicated. This morning, she began feeling painful contractions and noted vaginal bleeding after she fell off her bike while riding to work. She is experiencing lower abdominal and pelvic pain between contractions as well. Her temperature is 97.6°F (36.4°C), blood pressure is 177/99 mmHg, pulse is 100/min, respirations are 20/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Physical exam is notable for a gravid and hypertonic uterus and moderate blood in the vaginal vault. Ultrasound reveals no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A 32-year-old female presents to the gynecologist with a primary concern of infertility. She has been unable to become pregnant over the last 16 months despite consistently trying with her husband. She has not used any form of contraception during this time and her husband has had a normal semen analysis. She has never been diagnosed with any chronic conditions that could explain her infertility; however, she remembers testing positive for a sexually transmitted infection about four years ago. Which of the following is the most likely cause for her infertility?