Labor Complications — MCQs

A 53-year-old woman presents with a feeling of pelvic pressure which worsens with prolonged standing, pain on sexual intercourse, and lower back pain. She reports no urinary or fecal incontinence. She is G3P3 with no history of any gynecological disease and is premenopausal. All pregnancies were without complication and resolved with full-term vaginal deliveries. The patient has sex with her husband who is her single sexual partner and uses oral contraceptives. Her vital signs are within normal limits and physical examination is unremarkable. A gynecological examination reveals bulging of the posterior vaginal wall in the lower portion of the vagina which increases in the upright position and Valsalva maneuver. The cervix is in its normal position. The uterus is not enlarged, ovaries are nonpalpable. Damage to which of the following structures might contribute to the patient’s condition?

A 26-year-old G2P1 undergoes labor induction at 40 weeks gestation. The estimated fetal weight was 3890 g. The pregnancy was complicated by gestational diabetes treated with insulin. The vital signs were as follows: blood pressure 125/80 mm Hg, heart rate 91/min, respiratory rate 21/min, and temperature 36.8℃ (98.2℉). The blood workup yields the following results: Fasting glucose 92 mg/dL HbA1c 7.8% Erythrocyte count 3.3 million/mm3 Hb 11.6 g/dL Ht 46% Thrombocyte count 240,000/mm3 Serum creatinine 0.71 mg/dL ALT 12 IU/L AST 9 IU/L Which of the following is CONTRAINDICATED during labor in this patient?

A 15-year-old girl is brought to the physician by her mother because of lower abdominal pain for the past 5 days. The pain is constant and she describes it as 7 out of 10 in intensity. Over the past 7 months, she has had multiple similar episodes of abdominal pain, each lasting for 4–5 days. She has not yet attained menarche. Examination shows suprapubic tenderness to palpation. Pubic hair and breast development are Tanner stage 4. Examination of the external genitalia shows no abnormalities. Pelvic examination shows bulging, bluish vaginal tissue. Rectal examination shows an anterior tender mass. Which of the following is the most effective intervention for this patient's condition?

A 23-year-old woman comes to the emergency department because of increasing abdominal pain with associated nausea and vomiting. The symptoms began suddenly after having intercourse with her partner six hours ago. There is no associated fever, diarrhea, vaginal bleeding, or discharge. Menarche was at the age of 13 years and her last menstrual period was 4 weeks ago. She uses combination contraceptive pills. She had an appendectomy at the age of 12. Her temperature is 37.5°C (99.5°F), pulse is 100/min, respirations are 22/min, and blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg. Abdominal examination shows severe right lower quadrant tenderness with associated rebound and guarding. Pelvic examination shows scant, clear vaginal discharge and right adnexal tenderness. There is no cervical wall motion tenderness. Her hemoglobin concentration is 10.5 g/dL, leukocyte count is 9,000/mm3, and platelet count is 250,000/mm3. A urine pregnancy test is negative. Which of the following imaging findings is most likely?

A 66-year-old G3P3 presents with an 8-year-history of back pain, perineal discomfort, difficulty urinating, recurrent malaise, and low-grade fevers. These symptoms have recurred regularly for the past 5–6 years. She also says that there are times when she experiences a feeling of having a foreign body in her vagina. With the onset of symptoms, she was evaluated by a physician who prescribed her medications after a thorough examination and recommended a vaginal pessary, but she was non-compliant. She had 3 vaginal deliveries She has been menopausal since 51 years of age. She does not have a history of malignancies or cardiovascular disease. She has type 2 diabetes mellitus that is controlled with diet and metformin. Her vital signs include: blood pressure 110/60 mm Hg, heart rate 91/min, respiratory rate 13/min, and temperature 37.4℃ (99.3℉). On physical examination, there is bilateral costovertebral angle tenderness. The urinary bladder is non-palpable. The gynecologic examination reveals descent of the cervix to the level of the introitus. A Valsalva maneuver elicits uterine procidentia. Which pathology is most likely to be revealed by imaging in this patient?

A previously healthy 28-year-old woman comes to the physician because of lower abdominal pain and purulent vaginal discharge for the past 5 days. Menses occur at irregular 20 to 40-day intervals and last 4 to 8 days. She is sexually active with a new partner that she met 2 months ago and they use condoms inconsistently. She had a normal pap smear 5 months ago. She drinks 2 beers every other day. Her temperature is 39°C (102.2°F), pulse is 85/min, and blood pressure is 108/75 mm Hg. Examination shows lower abdominal tenderness and bilateral inguinal lymphadenopathy. Pelvic examination is notable for uterine and adnexal tenderness as well as small amounts of bloody cervical discharge. A spot urine pregnancy test is negative. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of 14,500/mm3 and an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 90 mm/h. Nucleic acid amplification confirms the suspected diagnosis. The patient is started on ceftriaxone and doxycycline. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 72-year-old multiparous woman comes to the physician for the evaluation of episodes of involuntary urine leakage for the past 6 months. She loses small amounts of urine without warning after laughing or sneezing. She also sometimes forgets the names of her grandchildren and friends. She is retired and lives at an assisted-living facility. She has insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus type 2. Her mother received a ventriculoperitoneal shunt around her age. She walks without any problems. Sensation to pinprick and light touch is normal. Which of the following is the primary underlying etiology for this patient's urinary incontinence?

A 29-year-old woman, gravida 1, para 0, at 38 weeks' gestation comes to the emergency department for sudden leakage of clear fluid from her vagina. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated. She has largely been compliant with her prenatal care but missed some appointments. She has a history of chronic hypertension. She drinks a glass of wine once per week. Current medications include labetalol, iron, and vitamin supplements. Her temperature is 37.9°C (100.2°F), pulse is 70/min, respirations are 18/min, and blood pressure is 128/82 mm Hg. Examination shows a soft and nontender abdomen on palpation. Speculum examination demonstrates clear fluid in the cervical canal. The fetal heart rate is reactive at 170/min with no decelerations. Tocometry shows no contractions. The vaginal fluid demonstrates a ferning pattern when placed onto a glass slide. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's condition?

A 36-year-old primigravid woman at 26 weeks' gestation comes to the physician complaining of absent fetal movements for the last 2 days. Pregnancy was confirmed by ultrasonography 14 weeks earlier. She has no vaginal bleeding or discharge. She has a history of type 1 diabetes mellitus controlled with insulin. Vital signs are all within the normal limits. Pelvic examination shows a soft, 2-cm long cervix in the midline with a cervical os measuring 3 cm and a uterus consistent in size with 24 weeks' gestation. Transvaginal ultrasonography shows a fetus with no cardiac activity. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 35-year-old G1 is brought to the emergency department because of sharp pains in her abdomen. She is at 30 weeks gestation based on ultrasound. She complains of feeling a little uneasy during the last 3 weeks of her pregnancy. She mentions that her abdomen has not been enlarging as expected and her baby is not moving as much as during the earlier part of the pregnancy. If anything, she noticed her abdomen has decreased in size. While she is giving her history, the emergency medicine physician notices that she is restless and is sweating profusely. An ultrasound is performed and her blood is sent for type and match. The blood pressure is 90/60 mm Hg, the pulse is 120/min, and the respiratory rate is 18/min. The fetal ultrasound is significant for no fetal heart motion or fetal movement. Her blood work shows the following: hemoglobin, 10.3 g/dL; platelet count, 1.1*10(5)/ml; bleeding time, 10 minutes; PT, 25 seconds; and PTT, 45 seconds. Which of the following would be the best immediate course of management for this patient?