An 11-year-old boy presents with a sore throat, fever, chills, and difficulty swallowing for the past 3 days. The patient’s mother says that last night he was short of breath and had a headache. Past medical history is unremarkable. The patient has not been vaccinated as his mother thinks it is "unnecessary". His temperature is 38.3°C (101.0°F), blood pressure is 120/70 mm Hg, pulse is 110/min, and respiratory rate is 18/min. On physical examination, the patient is ill-appearing and dehydrated. A grayish-white membrane and pharyngeal erythema are present in the oropharynx. Significant cervical lymphadenopathy is also present. A throat swab is taken and gram staining shows gram-positive club-shaped bacilli along with few neutrophils. Which of the following would most likely be the result of the bacterial culture of the throat swab in this patient?
Q2
A 24-hour-old newborn presents to the emergency department after a home birth because of fever, irritability alternating with lethargy, and poor feeding. The patient’s mother says symptoms acutely onset 12 hours ago and have not improved. No significant past medical history. His mother did not receive any prenatal care, and she had rupture of membranes 20 hours prior to delivery. His vital signs include: heart rate 150/min, respiratory rate 65/min, temperature 39.0°C (102.2°F), and blood pressure 60/40 mm Hg. On physical examination, the patient has delayed capillary refill. Laboratory studies show a pleocytosis and a low glucose level in the patient’s cerebrospinal fluid. Which of the following is the most likely causative organism for this patient’s condition?
Q3
An 11-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his parents for confusion and fever. The patient began complaining of a headache yesterday afternoon that progressively got worse. After waking him up this morning, his mom noticed that “he seemed funny and wasn’t able to carry a conversation fully.” When asked about his past medical history, the dad claims that he’s been healthy except for 2-3 episodes of finger pain and swelling. Physical examination demonstrates a boy in moderate distress, altered mental status, and nuchal rigidity. A CSF culture reveals a gram-positive, diplococci bacteria. What characteristic would you expect in the organism most likely responsible for this patient’s symptoms?
Q4
A 3-year-old male is brought to the ER with a sore throat and fever. Examination of the pharynx reveals a dark, inflammatory exudate. Cysteine-tellurite agar culture produces black, iridescent colonies. Microscopic features of the causal organism most likely include which of the following?
Q5
A microbiology graduate student was given a swab containing an unknown bacteria that caused an ear infection in a seven-year-old girl. The student identified the bacteria as a gram-positive, catalase-negative cocci showing alpha-hemolysis (greenish discoloration around colonies) when grown on blood agar. Which of the following characteristics is associated with this bacteria?
Q6
A 25-year-old woman presents with fever, rash, abdominal pain, and vaginal discharge for the past 3 days. She describes the pain as moderate, cramping in character, and diffusely localized to the suprapubic region. She says the rash is painless and does not itch. She also complains of associated generalized muscle aches and vomiting since last night. The patient denies any recent menstrual irregularities, dysuria, painful urination or similar symptoms in the past. Her past medical history is significant for chronic asthma, managed medically. There is no recent travel or sick contacts. Patient denies any smoking history, alcohol or recreational drug use. She has been sexually active for the past year with a single partner and has been using oral contraceptive pills. Her vital signs include: temperature 38.6°C (101.0°F), blood pressure 90/68 mm Hg, pulse 120/min, and respirations 20/min. Physical examination reveals a diffuse erythematous desquamating maculopapular rash over the lower abdomen and inner thighs. There is moderate tenderness to palpation of the suprapubic and lower right quadrants with no rebound or guarding. Abdomen is non-distended with no hepatosplenomegaly. Pelvic examination reveals a purulent vaginal discharge. Which of the following best describes the organism responsible for this patient’s condition?
Q7
A 21-year-old man seeks evaluation at an urgent care clinic because of nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain that began 2 hours ago. He attended a picnic this afternoon, where he ate a cheese sandwich and potato salad. He says that a number of his friends who were at the picnic have similar symptoms, so he thinks the symptoms are associated with the food that was served. His medical history is significant for celiac disease, which is well-controlled with a gluten-free diet and an appendectomy was performed last year. His vital signs include a temperature of 37.0°C (98.6°F), respiratory rate of 15/min, pulse of 97/min, and blood pressure of 98/78 mmHg. He is started on intravenous fluids. Which of the following is the most probable cause of this patient’s condition?
Q8
A 54-year-old man comes to the physician because of persistent right knee pain and swelling for 2 weeks. Six months ago, he had a total knee replacement because of osteoarthritis. His temperature is 38.5°C (101.3°F), pulse is 100/min, and blood pressure is 139/84 mm Hg. Examination shows warmth and erythema of the right knee; range of motion is limited by pain. His leukocyte count is 14,500/mm3, and erythrocyte sedimentation rate is 50 mm/hr. Blood cultures grow gram-positive, catalase-positive cocci. These bacteria grow on mannitol salt agar without color change. Production of which of the following is most important for the organism's virulence?
Q9
An 8-day-old male infant presents to the pediatrician with a high-grade fever and poor feeding pattern with regurgitation of milk after each feeding. On examination the infant showed abnormal movements, hypertonia, and exaggerated DTRs. The mother explains that during her pregnancy, she has tried to eat only unprocessed foods and unpasteurized dairy so that her baby would not be exposed to any preservatives or unhealthy chemicals. Which of the following characteristics describes the causative agent that caused this illness in the infant?
Q10
A 56-year-old woman comes to the emergency department because of worsening pain and swelling in her right knee for 3 days. She underwent a total knee arthroplasty of her right knee joint 5 months ago. The procedure and immediate aftermath were uneventful. She has hypertension and osteoarthritis. Current medications include glucosamine, amlodipine, and meloxicam. Her temperature is 37.9°C (100.2°F), pulse is 95/min, and blood pressure is 115/70 mm Hg. Examination shows a tender, swollen right knee joint; range of motion is limited by pain. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Arthrocentesis of the right knee is performed. Analysis of the synovial fluid shows:
Appearance Cloudy
Viscosity Absent
WBC count 78,000/mm3
Segmented neutrophils 94%
Lymphocytes 6%
Synovial fluid is sent for culture and antibiotic sensitivity. Which of the following is the most likely causal pathogen?
Gram-positive US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: An 11-year-old boy presents with a sore throat, fever, chills, and difficulty swallowing for the past 3 days. The patient’s mother says that last night he was short of breath and had a headache. Past medical history is unremarkable. The patient has not been vaccinated as his mother thinks it is "unnecessary". His temperature is 38.3°C (101.0°F), blood pressure is 120/70 mm Hg, pulse is 110/min, and respiratory rate is 18/min. On physical examination, the patient is ill-appearing and dehydrated. A grayish-white membrane and pharyngeal erythema are present in the oropharynx. Significant cervical lymphadenopathy is also present. A throat swab is taken and gram staining shows gram-positive club-shaped bacilli along with few neutrophils. Which of the following would most likely be the result of the bacterial culture of the throat swab in this patient?
A. Hemolytic black colonies on blood agar
B. Metallic green colonies on eosin-methylene blue agar
C. Greyish-white colonies on Thayer-Martin agar
D. Small black colonies on tellurite agar (Correct Answer)
E. Creamy white colonies on Loeffler's serum
Explanation: ***Small black colonies on tellurite agar***
- The clinical presentation, including **sore throat**, **fever**, **grayish-white membrane** in the oropharynx, and **cervical lymphadenopathy** in an **unvaccinated child**, strongly suggests **diphtheria** caused by *Corynebacterium diphtheriae*.
- *Corynebacterium diphtheriae* produces **small gray-black colonies** on **potassium tellurite agar** (e.g., Blood Tellurite Agar or Tinsdale agar) due to the reduction of tellurite to elemental tellurium within the bacterial cells.
- This is the **definitive culture characteristic** used for laboratory diagnosis of diphtheria.
*Hemolytic black colonies on blood agar*
- **Hemolytic black colonies** are not characteristic of *Corynebacterium diphtheriae*.
- *C. diphtheriae* may show minimal or no hemolysis on blood agar, and does not produce black colonies on this medium.
- Black colonies with hemolysis might suggest other organisms but are not typical for diphtheria diagnosis.
*Metallic green colonies on eosin-methylene blue agar*
- **Metallic green colonies** on **eosin-methylene blue (EMB) agar** are characteristic of **lactose-fermenting bacteria**, particularly *Escherichia coli*.
- This finding is associated with **Gram-negative enteric bacteria**, not the Gram-positive club-shaped bacilli seen in this patient.
*Greyish-white colonies on Thayer-Martin agar*
- **Greyish-white colonies** on **Thayer-Martin agar** are typically seen with **fastidious Gram-negative diplococci**, such as *Neisseria gonorrhoeae* or *Neisseria meningitidis*.
- This medium is selective for *Neisseria* species and would not be used for isolating *Corynebacterium diphtheriae*, which is a Gram-positive rod.
*Creamy white colonies on Loeffler's serum*
- **Loeffler's serum medium** is indeed used to enhance the growth of *Corynebacterium diphtheriae*, and the organism produces **creamy white to grayish colonies** on this medium.
- However, Loeffler's medium is primarily used to demonstrate the characteristic **metachromatic granules** (Babes-Ernst bodies) on microscopy, not for definitive culture identification.
- **Tellurite agar**, not Loeffler's medium, is the **gold standard** for culture diagnosis because the black colony appearance is pathognomonic for *C. diphtheriae*.
Question 2: A 24-hour-old newborn presents to the emergency department after a home birth because of fever, irritability alternating with lethargy, and poor feeding. The patient’s mother says symptoms acutely onset 12 hours ago and have not improved. No significant past medical history. His mother did not receive any prenatal care, and she had rupture of membranes 20 hours prior to delivery. His vital signs include: heart rate 150/min, respiratory rate 65/min, temperature 39.0°C (102.2°F), and blood pressure 60/40 mm Hg. On physical examination, the patient has delayed capillary refill. Laboratory studies show a pleocytosis and a low glucose level in the patient’s cerebrospinal fluid. Which of the following is the most likely causative organism for this patient’s condition?
A. Group A Streptococcus
B. Enterovirus
C. Group B Streptococcus (Correct Answer)
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae
E. Cryptococcus neoformans
Explanation: ***Group B Streptococcus***
- This newborn presents with **fever, irritability/lethargy, poor feeding**, and signs of **sepsis (tachycardia, tachypnea, hypotension, delayed capillary refill)**, along with **abnormal CSF (pleocytosis, low glucose)**, indicating **neonatal meningitis**.
- **Group B Streptococcus (GBS)** is the **most common cause of early-onset neonatal sepsis and meningitis**, especially with risk factors such as **lack of prenatal care** and **prolonged rupture of membranes (>18 hours)**, as seen in this case.
*Group A Streptococcus*
- While Group A Streptococcus can cause severe infections, it is an **uncommon cause of neonatal sepsis and meningitis** compared to GBS.
- More typically associated with **pharyngitis, impetigo, and necrotizing fasciitis** in older children and adults.
*Enterovirus*
- Enteroviruses are a common cause of **viral meningitis in neonates and infants**, but typically present with a **lymphocytic pleocytosis** and **normal CSF glucose**, in contrast to the features (pleocytosis, low glucose) seen here.
- While fever and irritability can be present, the CSF findings point more towards a bacterial infection.
*Streptococcus pneumoniae*
- *Streptococcus pneumoniae* can cause bacterial meningitis but is **less common in the immediate neonatal period** (first 7 days of life) compared to GBS.
- Risk factors often include **preterm birth** or **underlying immune deficiencies**, which are not specified here.
*Cryptococcus neoformans*
- *Cryptococcus neoformans* is an **opportunistic fungal pathogen** that typically causes meningitis in **immunocompromised individuals**, such as those with HIV/AIDS.
- It is **extremely rare** in immunocompetent newborns and would not be the most likely cause in this clinical scenario.
Question 3: An 11-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his parents for confusion and fever. The patient began complaining of a headache yesterday afternoon that progressively got worse. After waking him up this morning, his mom noticed that “he seemed funny and wasn’t able to carry a conversation fully.” When asked about his past medical history, the dad claims that he’s been healthy except for 2-3 episodes of finger pain and swelling. Physical examination demonstrates a boy in moderate distress, altered mental status, and nuchal rigidity. A CSF culture reveals a gram-positive, diplococci bacteria. What characteristic would you expect in the organism most likely responsible for this patient’s symptoms?
A. Maltose fermentation
B. Pyocyanin production
C. K-capsule
D. Culture on chocolate agar with factors V and X
E. Optochin sensitivity (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Optochin sensitivity***
- The patient's symptoms (fever, confusion, headache, nuchal rigidity in an 11-year-old) and CSF findings (gram-positive diplococci) are highly suggestive of **Streptococcus pneumoniae meningitis**.
- **Streptococcus pneumoniae** is sensitive to optochin, which is a key characteristic used for laboratory identification.
*Maltose fermentation*
- **Neisseria meningitidis**, another common cause of bacterial meningitis, ferments **maltose** and glucose.
- While *N. meningitidis* is also a gram-negative diplococcus, the CSF microscopy showing **gram-positive diplococci** rules out this organism.
*Pyocyanin production*
- **Pyocyanin** is a blue-green pigment produced by **Pseudomonas aeruginosa**, a gram-negative rod.
- *Pseudomonas aeruginosa* is typically associated with infections in immunocompromised patients, burn victims, or hospital-acquired infections, and it does not present as a gram-positive diplococcus in CSF.
*K-capsule*
- The **K-capsule** (or capsular antigen) is characteristic of **Escherichia coli**, particularly strains causing neonatal meningitis.
- *E. coli* is a gram-negative rod, which is inconsistent with the gram-positive diplococci observed in the CSF.
*Culture on chocolate agar with factors V and X*
- This growth requirement is characteristic of **Haemophilus influenzae**, a gram-negative coccobacillus.
- *Haemophilus influenzae* meningitis typically presents with similar symptoms but is caused by a gram-negative organism, not a gram-positive one as seen in this case.
Question 4: A 3-year-old male is brought to the ER with a sore throat and fever. Examination of the pharynx reveals a dark, inflammatory exudate. Cysteine-tellurite agar culture produces black, iridescent colonies. Microscopic features of the causal organism most likely include which of the following?
A. Serpentine growth patterns
B. Kidney bean-shaped diplococci
C. Long, branching filaments
D. Lancet-shape
E. Metachromic granules (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Metachromic granules***
- The constellation of **sore throat**, **fever**, **dark inflammatory exudate** in the pharynx, and growth on **cysteine-tellurite agar** with **black, iridescent colonies** is highly characteristic of *Corynebacterium diphtheriae*.
- *Corynebacterium diphtheriae* is known for exhibiting **metachromatic granules** (Babes-Ernst bodies) when stained, which are reserves of inorganic polyphosphate.
*Serpentine growth patterns*
- **Serpentine growth patterns** are characteristic of *Mycobacterium tuberculosis* in liquid culture, not *Corynebacterium diphtheriae*.
- This growth pattern is due to the arrangement of bacterial cells in long, cord-like structures.
*Kidney bean-shaped diplococci*
- **Kidney bean-shaped diplococci** are characteristic of *Neisseria* species, such as *Neisseria gonorrhoeae* or *Neisseria meningitidis*.
- These Gram-negative cocci are typically found in pairs with adjacent flattened sides, giving them a kidney bean appearance.
- These organisms cause different clinical syndromes and have distinct culture characteristics.
*Long, branching filaments*
- **Long, branching filaments** are a microscopic feature of certain bacteria like *Actinomyces* and *Nocardia*.
- These organisms are responsible for actinomycosis and nocardiosis, which are typically chronic infections distinct from diphtheria.
*Lancet-shape*
- The term **lancet-shape** is used to describe the morphology of *Streptococcus pneumoniae*, which are Gram-positive cocci typically found in pairs (diplococci).
- *Streptococcus pneumoniae* causes pneumonia, meningitis, and otitis media, which differ from the presentation of diphtheria.
Question 5: A microbiology graduate student was given a swab containing an unknown bacteria that caused an ear infection in a seven-year-old girl. The student identified the bacteria as a gram-positive, catalase-negative cocci showing alpha-hemolysis (greenish discoloration around colonies) when grown on blood agar. Which of the following characteristics is associated with this bacteria?
A. Bacitracin-sensitive
B. Growth in bile and 6.5% NaCl
C. Bacitracin-resistant
D. Negative quellung reaction
E. Positive quellung reaction (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Positive quellung reaction***
- The description of **gram-positive**, **catalase-negative cocci** with **alpha-hemolysis** (greenish discoloration) strongly points to ***Streptococcus pneumoniae***.
- ***S. pneumoniae*** possesses a polysaccharide capsule, which causes a **positive quellung reaction** (capsular swelling) in the presence of specific antiserum, making the capsule appear swollen and more visible under a microscope.
- This is the hallmark diagnostic test for *S. pneumoniae* and directly associated with the organism's virulence.
*Bacitracin-sensitive*
- **Bacitracin sensitivity** is a characteristic used to identify **Group A Streptococcus** (*Streptococcus pyogenes*), which is **beta-hemolytic**, not alpha-hemolytic.
- The bacteria in question exhibits **alpha-hemolysis**, ruling out Group A Streptococcus.
*Growth in bile and 6.5% NaCl*
- The ability to **grow in bile and 6.5% NaCl** is a distinguishing feature of ***Enterococcus* species**.
- While *Enterococcus* is gram-positive and catalase-negative, it typically exhibits variable hemolysis and is not associated with otitis media in this clinical context.
*Bacitracin-resistant*
- **Bacitracin resistance** is seen in many bacterial species, including **Group B Streptococcus** (*Streptococcus agalactiae*), which is **beta-hemolytic**.
- While *S. pneumoniae* is bacitracin-resistant, this is not its distinguishing characteristic; the **quellung reaction** is the specific identifying feature.
*Negative quellung reaction*
- A **negative quellung reaction** would indicate the absence of a polysaccharide capsule, which would rule out ***S. pneumoniae***.
- Since all other characteristics strongly suggest *S. pneumoniae*, a negative quellung reaction would be contradictory.
Question 6: A 25-year-old woman presents with fever, rash, abdominal pain, and vaginal discharge for the past 3 days. She describes the pain as moderate, cramping in character, and diffusely localized to the suprapubic region. She says the rash is painless and does not itch. She also complains of associated generalized muscle aches and vomiting since last night. The patient denies any recent menstrual irregularities, dysuria, painful urination or similar symptoms in the past. Her past medical history is significant for chronic asthma, managed medically. There is no recent travel or sick contacts. Patient denies any smoking history, alcohol or recreational drug use. She has been sexually active for the past year with a single partner and has been using oral contraceptive pills. Her vital signs include: temperature 38.6°C (101.0°F), blood pressure 90/68 mm Hg, pulse 120/min, and respirations 20/min. Physical examination reveals a diffuse erythematous desquamating maculopapular rash over the lower abdomen and inner thighs. There is moderate tenderness to palpation of the suprapubic and lower right quadrants with no rebound or guarding. Abdomen is non-distended with no hepatosplenomegaly. Pelvic examination reveals a purulent vaginal discharge. Which of the following best describes the organism responsible for this patient’s condition?
A. Gram-positive bacilli in pairs producing superantigens
B. Gram-positive cocci in clusters producing superantigens (Correct Answer)
C. Gram-positive cocci in chain producing an exotoxin
D. Gram-negative bacilli in chain producing an endotoxin
E. Gram-negative cocci in clusters producing an enterotoxin
Explanation: ***Gram-positive cocci in clusters producing superantigens***
- The patient's symptoms (fever, rash, hypotension, vaginal discharge, abdominal pain, vomiting, muscle aches) are classic for **Toxic Shock Syndrome (TSS)**.
- TSS is most commonly caused by **_Staphylococcus aureus_**, which are gram-positive cocci that grow in **clusters** and produce **superantigens** (e.g., TSST-1), leading to massive cytokine release.
- The clinical context (vaginal discharge, sexually active woman on oral contraceptives) strongly suggests staphylococcal TSS.
*Gram-positive bacilli in pairs producing superantigens*
- This morphology description does not match any typical organism causing TSS.
- Gram-positive bacilli (e.g., _Bacillus_, _Listeria_, _Clostridium_) do not characteristically grow in pairs and are not the primary causes of TSS with this presentation.
*Gram-positive cocci in chain producing an exotoxin*
- This describes **_Streptococcus pyogenes_** (Group A Strep), which are gram-positive cocci that grow in **chains** and produce superantigen exotoxins (streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxins: SPE-A, SPE-B, SPE-C).
- While streptococcal toxic shock syndrome can occur, the key distinguishing features here are: (1) **morphology** - chains vs. clusters, and (2) **clinical context** - the vaginal discharge and oral contraceptive use are more typical of staphylococcal TSS, often associated with tampon use or barrier contraception rather than streptococcal skin/soft tissue infections.
- Note: Superantigens are a type of exotoxin, so both _S. aureus_ and _S. pyogenes_ technically produce superantigen exotoxins.
*Gram-negative bacilli in chain producing an endotoxin*
- This describes gram-negative bacteria (e.g., Enterobacteriaceae) which produce **endotoxins (LPS)** and can cause septic shock.
- However, gram-negative septic shock lacks the characteristic **diffuse erythematous desquamating rash**, which is highly specific for superantigen-mediated TSS caused by gram-positive bacteria.
- Gram-negative bacteria also do not typically grow in chains.
*Gram-negative cocci in clusters producing an enterotoxin*
- This description does not match any typical pathogen causing TSS.
- While _Neisseria_ species are gram-negative cocci (typically diplococci), they grow in pairs, not clusters, and do not produce enterotoxins or cause this clinical syndrome.
- **Enterotoxins** cause primarily gastrointestinal symptoms (food poisoning) rather than the systemic inflammatory response with characteristic rash and hypotension seen in TSS.
Question 7: A 21-year-old man seeks evaluation at an urgent care clinic because of nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain that began 2 hours ago. He attended a picnic this afternoon, where he ate a cheese sandwich and potato salad. He says that a number of his friends who were at the picnic have similar symptoms, so he thinks the symptoms are associated with the food that was served. His medical history is significant for celiac disease, which is well-controlled with a gluten-free diet and an appendectomy was performed last year. His vital signs include a temperature of 37.0°C (98.6°F), respiratory rate of 15/min, pulse of 97/min, and blood pressure of 98/78 mmHg. He is started on intravenous fluids. Which of the following is the most probable cause of this patient’s condition?
A. Gram-positive, catalase-positive bacteria
B. A toxin produced by a gram-positive, catalase-positive bacteria (Correct Answer)
C. Gram-negative bacillus
D. Gram-positive, catalase-negative bacteria
E. Antigliadin antibody
Explanation: ***A toxin produced by a gram-positive, catalase-positive bacteria***
- This patient presents with acute onset **nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain** shortly after eating, and other individuals who ate the same food are experiencing similar symptoms, pointing to a **foodborne illness** with preformed toxin.
- The rapid onset (2 hours) is characteristic of **Staphylococcus aureus enterotoxin**, a heat-stable toxin produced by a **gram-positive, catalase-positive bacterium** often found in foods like potato salad and sandwiches that have been left at room temperature.
*Gram-positive, catalase-positive bacteria*
- While *Staphylococcus aureus* is a gram-positive, catalase-positive bacterium, the **rapid onset** of symptoms (2 hours) is most consistent with **ingestion of a preformed toxin**, not active bacterial proliferation and infection in the host.
- If the illness were due to bacterial infection rather than a preformed toxin, the **incubation period** would typically be longer, allowing time for bacterial colonization and toxin production within the host.
*Gram-negative bacillus*
- Foodborne illnesses caused by **gram-negative bacilli** (e.g., *Salmonella*, *E. coli*) typically have a **longer incubation period** (several hours to days) as they require bacterial multiplication in the host to cause symptoms.
- The symptoms associated with many gram-negative bacterial infections often include **diarrhea** and sometimes fever, which are not the primary complaints in this case.
*Gram-positive, catalase-negative bacteria*
- **Gram-positive, catalase-negative bacteria** like *Clostridium perfringens* can cause foodborne illness, but symptoms usually involve **diarrhea and abdominal cramps** rather than prominent vomiting, and the onset is typically 8-12 hours after ingestion.
- Another example would be *Bacillus cereus* (diarrheal form), which also has a **longer incubation period** (8-16 hours) compared to the 2-hour onset seen in this case.
*Antigliadin antibody*
- **Antigliadin antibodies** are relevant to **celiac disease** but are not a causative agent for acute gastrointestinal symptoms like those described; they are involved in the immune response to gluten.
- The patient's celiac disease is noted as "well-controlled" and he is on a **gluten-free diet**, making an acute exacerbation due to gluten exposure less likely, and even if it were, symptoms would not be shared by his friends unless they also have celiac disease and consumed gluten.
Question 8: A 54-year-old man comes to the physician because of persistent right knee pain and swelling for 2 weeks. Six months ago, he had a total knee replacement because of osteoarthritis. His temperature is 38.5°C (101.3°F), pulse is 100/min, and blood pressure is 139/84 mm Hg. Examination shows warmth and erythema of the right knee; range of motion is limited by pain. His leukocyte count is 14,500/mm3, and erythrocyte sedimentation rate is 50 mm/hr. Blood cultures grow gram-positive, catalase-positive cocci. These bacteria grow on mannitol salt agar without color change. Production of which of the following is most important for the organism's virulence?
A. Vi capsule
B. Exotoxin A
C. Cord factor
D. Exopolysaccharides (Correct Answer)
E. Protein A
Explanation: ***Exopolysaccharides***
- The patient presents with **fever**, **joint pain and swelling**, elevated **leukocyte count** and **ESR**, and a history of **total knee replacement**, all indicative of a **prosthetic joint infection**.
- The pathogen is described as **gram-positive**, **catalase-positive cocci** that grow on mannitol salt agar without a color change, suggesting **Staphylococcus epidermidis** or a similar coagulase-negative Staphylococcus species. These pathogens are known for forming **biofilms (exopolysaccharides)** on foreign bodies, making treatment difficult.
*Vi capsule*
- The **Vi capsule** is a virulence factor primarily associated with **Salmonella typhi**, which causes typhoid fever.
- The clinical presentation and microbiological findings (gram-positive cocci) do not match **Salmonella typhi** infection.
*Exotoxin A*
- **Exotoxin A** is a potent virulence factor produced by **Pseudomonas aeruginosa**, a gram-negative rod.
- The bacterial description in the stem (gram-positive, catalase-positive cocci) is inconsistent with **Pseudomonas aeruginosa**.
*Cord factor*
- **Cord factor** is a mycolic acid-containing glycolipid found in the cell wall of **Mycobacterium tuberculosis** and other mycobacteria.
- The pathogen in this case is described as **gram-positive cocci**, which rules out a mycobacterial infection.
*Protein A*
- **Protein A** is a cell wall component of **Staphylococcus aureus** that binds to the Fc region of IgG, inhibiting opsonization and phagocytosis.
- While *Staphylococcus aureus* is a gram-positive, catalase-positive cocci, its typical growth on mannitol salt agar involves **yellowing (fermentation of mannitol)** due to acid production, which is not described here ("without color change").
Question 9: An 8-day-old male infant presents to the pediatrician with a high-grade fever and poor feeding pattern with regurgitation of milk after each feeding. On examination the infant showed abnormal movements, hypertonia, and exaggerated DTRs. The mother explains that during her pregnancy, she has tried to eat only unprocessed foods and unpasteurized dairy so that her baby would not be exposed to any preservatives or unhealthy chemicals. Which of the following characteristics describes the causative agent that caused this illness in the infant?
A. Gram-positive, facultative intracellular, motile bacilli (Correct Answer)
B. Gram-negative, maltose fermenting diplococci
C. Gram-positive, catalase-negative, alpha hemolytic, optochin sensitive cocci
D. Gram-positive, catalase-negative, beta hemolytic, bacitracin resistant cocci
E. Gram-negative, lactose-fermenting, facultative anaerobic bacilli
Explanation: ***Gram-positive, facultative intracellular, motile bacilli***
- The infant's symptoms (fever, poor feeding, regurgitation, abnormal movements, hypertonia, exaggerated DTRs) are highly suggestive of **meningitis** or **meningoencephalitis** in a neonate.
- The mother's consumption of **unpasteurized dairy** is a significant risk factor for **Listeria monocytogenes infection**, which is a **gram-positive, facultative intracellular, motile bacillus** that can cause neonatal sepsis and meningitis.
*Gram-negative, maltose fermenting diplococci*
- This description refers to **Neisseria meningitidis**, which is a common cause of meningitis but typically affects older infants, children, and young adults.
- While Neisseria can cause neonatal infection, it is less commonly associated with unpasteurized dairy consumption.
*Gram-positive, catalase-negative, alpha hemolytic, optochin sensitive cocci*
- This describes **Streptococcus pneumoniae**, a common cause of bacterial meningitis, otitis media, and pneumonia.
- S. pneumoniae is generally **catalase-negative** and **alpha-hemolytic**, but it is not typically associated with unpasteurized dairy transmission in neonates.
*Gram-positive, catalase-negative, beta hemolytic, bacitracin resistant cocci*
- This description points to **Group B Streptococcus (Streptococcus agalactiae)**, a leading cause of early-onset neonatal sepsis and meningitis.
- While GBS is a common neonatal pathogen, it is transmitted vertically from the mother's birth canal and not primarily through unpasteurized dairy products.
*Gram-negative, lactose-fermenting, facultative anaerobic bacilli*
- This describes organisms like **Escherichia coli**, a common cause of neonatal meningitis, especially in premature or low-birth-weight infants.
- While E. coli can be transmitted via fecal-oral routes, the specific history of unpasteurized dairy strongly points away from E. coli as the *most likely* causative agent in this scenario.
Question 10: A 56-year-old woman comes to the emergency department because of worsening pain and swelling in her right knee for 3 days. She underwent a total knee arthroplasty of her right knee joint 5 months ago. The procedure and immediate aftermath were uneventful. She has hypertension and osteoarthritis. Current medications include glucosamine, amlodipine, and meloxicam. Her temperature is 37.9°C (100.2°F), pulse is 95/min, and blood pressure is 115/70 mm Hg. Examination shows a tender, swollen right knee joint; range of motion is limited by pain. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Arthrocentesis of the right knee is performed. Analysis of the synovial fluid shows:
Appearance Cloudy
Viscosity Absent
WBC count 78,000/mm3
Segmented neutrophils 94%
Lymphocytes 6%
Synovial fluid is sent for culture and antibiotic sensitivity. Which of the following is the most likely causal pathogen?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Escherichia coli
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D. Staphylococcus epidermidis (Correct Answer)
E. Streptococcus agalactiae
Explanation: ***Staphylococcus epidermidis***
- This patient's symptoms (worsening pain and swelling in a knee with a history of **total knee arthroplasty 5 months ago**, increased WBC count and neutrophil predominance in synovial fluid), point towards a **prosthetic joint infection**.
- **Coagulase-negative Staphylococci**, particularly *S. epidermidis*, are the most common cause of **late prosthetic joint infections**, typically occurring months to years after surgery.
*Staphylococcus aureus*
- *Staphylococcus aureus* is a common cause of **acute prosthetic joint infections**, which usually manifest within the **first 3 months post-surgery**. This patient's symptoms began 5 months after surgery.
- While it can cause late infections, *S. epidermidis* is more characteristic for this timeline in prosthetic joint infections.
*Escherichia coli*
- *Escherichia coli* is typically associated with **urinary tract infections** or **gastrointestinal infections**.
- It is an uncommon cause of prosthetic joint infections unless there's a direct spread from a local infection or systemic sepsis, which is not suggested here.
*Pseudomonas aeruginosa*
- *Pseudomonas aeruginosa* is often associated with **healthcare-associated infections**, particularly in immunocompromised patients or those with indwelling catheters or extensive burns.
- While it can cause prosthetic joint infections, it's less common than Staphylococci and usually linked to specific clinical settings or water contamination.
*Streptococcus agalactiae*
- *Streptococcus agalactiae* (Group B Strep) is primarily known to cause serious infections in **neonates** and **pregnant women**, and in adults with underlying conditions like **diabetes** or **immunocompromise**.
- It is an infrequent cause of prosthetic joint infections in otherwise healthy adults without specific risk factors for GBS infection.