Vascular Surgery Practice Questions

Q: Which of the following best describes Buerger's disease?

Segmental. **Explanation:** **Buerger’s Disease**, also known as **Thromboangiitis Obliterans (TAO)**, is a non-atherosclerotic, inflammatory occlusive disease that primarily affects small and medium-sized arteries and veins of the distal upper and lower extremities. 1. **Why "Segmental" is correct:** The hallmark of Buerger’s disease is its **segmental distribution**. This means that diseased sections of the vessel are separated by segments of entirely normal, healthy vessels (skip lesions). This is a crucial diagnostic feature seen on angiography, often described as a "corkscrew" appearance due to collateral formation around the segmental occlusions. 2. **Why the other options are incorrect:** * **Non-progressive:** TAO is a **progressive** disease, especially if the patient continues to use tobacco. It can lead to critical limb ischemia, ulceration, and gangrene. * **Non-inflammatory:** TAO is fundamentally an **inflammatory** condition. Unlike atherosclerosis, it involves a highly cellular, inflammatory thrombus with relative sparing of the vessel wall (internal elastic lamina remains intact). * **Atherosclerotic:** TAO is a **non-atherosclerotic** vasculitis. It lacks the lipid deposition and calcification characteristic of atherosclerosis and typically affects much younger patients. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Strongest Risk Factor:** Heavy tobacco use (smoking or chewing). Cessation is the only way to halt disease progression. * **Demographics:** Typically affects young males (<45 years). * **Triad:** Distal ischemia (claudication/rest pain), Raynaud’s phenomenon, and Migratory Superficial Thrombophlebitis. * **Angiographic finding:** "Corkscrew" collaterals (Martorell’s sign). * **Histopathology:** Microabscesses within the thrombus (Langerhans giant cells).

Q: What is the most common cause of a thrombus in the common femoral artery in a 40-year-old male?

Atheroma. **Explanation:** **1. Why Atheroma is Correct:** Atherosclerosis (Atheroma) is the most common cause of arterial thrombosis and chronic limb-threatening ischemia worldwide. In the lower limbs, the **common femoral artery** and the **superficial femoral artery (at Adductor canal)** are the most frequent sites for atherosclerotic plaque formation. Even in a 40-year-old male, lifestyle factors, genetics, and metabolic syndromes make atheroma the leading cause of large-vessel occlusion. The thrombus typically forms due to plaque rupture or endothelial erosion, which triggers the coagulation cascade. **2. Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Thromboangiitis obliterans (Buerger’s Disease):** While common in young male smokers, it primarily affects **small and medium-sized distal arteries** (e.g., tibial and radial arteries). It rarely involves the proximal common femoral artery. * **Raynaud’s Disease:** This is a functional vasospastic disorder affecting the digital arteries of the fingers and toes. It does not lead to large-vessel thrombus in the femoral artery. * **Abdominal Mass:** While a large mass (like an aneurysm or tumor) can cause extrinsic compression leading to stasis, it is a rare cause of femoral thrombosis compared to the systemic prevalence of atherosclerosis. **3. High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most common site of peripheral arterial occlusion:** Superficial Femoral Artery (SFA). * **Most common site for an arterial embolus:** Femoral artery bifurcation (Common Femoral Artery). * **Leriche Syndrome:** A triad of claudication (buttock/thigh), impotence, and absent femoral pulses due to aortoiliac occlusive disease. * **Buerger’s Disease Hallmark:** Segmental inflammation with "corkscrew collaterals" on angiography.

Q: Bastio surgery for refractory left ventricular hypertrophy is:

Ventriculectomy. **Explanation:** **Batista Surgery** (Partial Left Ventriculectomy) was developed by Dr. Randas Batista. The procedure is based on **Laplace’s Law**, which states that wall tension ($T$) is proportional to the product of intraventricular pressure ($P$) and radius ($R$) ($T = P \times R$). In refractory heart failure or severe left ventricular hypertrophy/dilation, the increased radius leads to massive wall tension, decreasing myocardial efficiency. By surgically removing a wedge of the left ventricular wall (ventriculectomy), the radius is reduced, thereby lowering wall tension and improving the heart's contractile efficiency. **Analysis of Options:** * **Option C (Ventriculectomy):** This is the correct answer. The procedure involves the excision of a portion of the viable but dilated left ventricular myocardium (usually between the papillary muscles) to reduce the volume of the dilated chamber. * **Option A (Patch repair):** This refers to procedures like the **Dor procedure** (Endoventricular Circular Patch Plasty), used specifically for ventricular aneurysms, not general refractory hypertrophy. * **Option B (Mitral regurgitation repair):** While mitral repair may be done concurrently with Batista surgery if functional MR is present, it is not the definition of the surgery itself. * **Option D (Ventriculoplasty):** This is a broader term for reshaping the ventricle. While Batista is a form of ventriculoplasty, "Ventriculectomy" is the specific surgical action that defines the procedure. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Indication:** End-stage dilated cardiomyopathy as an alternative to cardiac transplantation. * **Key Principle:** Reduction of LV diameter to decrease wall stress (Laplace Law). * **Current Status:** Largely superseded by medical management and Ventricular Assist Devices (VADs) due to high long-term failure rates, but remains a classic surgical concept in exams.

Q: In the CEAP clinical classification, what does C-4b indicate?

Lipodermatosclerosis or atrophie blanche. The **CEAP classification** is the international standard for describing Chronic Venous Disorders. The "C" component stands for **Clinical signs**, graded from 0 to 6 based on severity. ### **Explanation of the Correct Answer** **C4** represents skin and subcutaneous tissue changes secondary to chronic venous hypertension. It is subdivided into: * **C4a:** Minor changes such as **pigmentation** (hemosiderin deposition) or **eczema** (stasis dermatitis). * **C4b:** More advanced, fibrotic changes including **lipodermatosclerosis** (induration and scarring of the skin/fat) or **atrophie blanche** (white, stellate scar tissue). Therefore, **Option D** is the correct classification for C4b. ### **Analysis of Incorrect Options** * **Option A (Edema):** This corresponds to **C3**. It is typically pitting edema at the ankle level. * **Option B (Pigmentation/Eczema):** These are the milder skin changes classified as **C4a**. * **Option C (Healed venous ulcer):** This corresponds to **C5**. An active, open venous ulcer is classified as **C6**. ### **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls** * **C0:** No visible or palpable signs of venous disease. * **C1:** Telangiectasias or reticular veins (Spider veins). * **C2:** Varicose veins (distinguished from C1 by being >3mm in diameter). * **Lipodermatosclerosis** often gives the lower leg an **"Inverted Champagne Bottle"** appearance due to proximal swelling and distal fibrosis. * **Atrophie blanche** is also known as *livedoid vasculopathy*. * The **"E, A, P"** in CEAP stand for Etiology (Congenital, Primary, Secondary), Anatomy (Superficial, Perforator, Deep), and Pathophysiology (Reflux, Obstruction).

Q: SEPS is a procedure used for what?

Veins. **Explanation:** **SEPS (Subfascial Endoscopic Perforator Surgery)** is a minimally invasive surgical technique used specifically in the management of **Chronic Venous Insufficiency (CVI)**. **Why Veins is the correct answer:** The primary pathology in advanced CVI (CEAP classes C4–C6) is often **perforator vein incompetence**. These veins normally allow blood to flow from the superficial to the deep venous system. When they become incompetent, high pressure from the deep veins is transmitted to the superficial system, leading to skin changes and venous ulcers. SEPS involves using an endoscope inserted into the subfascial space of the leg to visualize and ligate these incompetent perforators. This is preferred over the traditional open **Linton’s procedure**, as it significantly reduces wound healing complications in areas with compromised skin. **Why other options are incorrect:** * **Arteries:** Arterial pathologies (like PAD) are managed via bypass grafts, endarterectomy, or angioplasty. SEPS does not address arterial flow. * **Lymphatics:** Lymphedema is managed conservatively or via lymphovenous anastomosis; SEPS has no role in lymphatic drainage. * **AV Fistula:** These are connections between arteries and veins (congenital or for dialysis) and are managed by ligation or surgical creation, not subfascial endoscopy. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Indication:** Most commonly used for **Venous Ulcers (CEAP Class C6)** that fail to heal with compression therapy. * **Anatomy:** It targets the **Cockett’s perforators** (lower leg). * **Advantage:** Lower risk of "wound dehiscence" compared to the open Linton’s procedure. * **Contraindications:** Presence of Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT) or severe arterial ischemia.

Question 1

Which of the following best describes Buerger's disease?

Accepted Answer

Segmental

Answer

Non-progressive

Answer

Non-inflammatory

Answer

Atherosclerotic

Question 2

What is the most common cause of a thrombus in the common femoral artery in a 40-year-old male?

Accepted Answer

Atheroma

Answer

Thromboangiitis obliterans

Answer

Raynaud's disease

Answer

Abdominal mass

Question 3

A patient complains of breathlessness following trauma. The trachea is shifted to the opposite side, a resonant percussion note is heard with absent breath sounds. What is a false statement regarding the insertion of an intercostal drain (ICD)?

Accepted Answer

Insert into the 4th or 5th intercostal space along the scapular line.

Answer

The direction of insertion is posterior and superior.

Answer

The insertion area must be palpated digitally to confirm the position.

Answer

Done in the upper part of the lower rib to avoid vessel and nerve injury.

Question 4

What is the antibiotic of choice for lymphedema?

Accepted Answer

Penicillin

Answer

Amikacin

Answer

Metronidazole

Answer

Ceftazidime

Question 5

Which of the following is a method of treating venous ulcer?

Accepted Answer

Bisgaard method

Answer

Hilton's method

Answer

Trivex method

Answer

Tessari method

Question 6

A patient presents with varicose veins due to sapheno-femoral incompetence and normal perforators. Which of the following is NOT an appropriate management option?

Accepted Answer

Sclerotherapy

Answer

Endovascular stripping

Answer

Sapheno-femoral flush ligation

Answer

Sapheno-femoral flush ligation with stripping

Question 7

All of the following are risk factors for thoracic aortic aneurysm rupture except?

Accepted Answer

Anticoagulation use

Answer

Symptomatic aneurysm

Answer

Concurrent dissection

Answer

Increased patient age

Question 8

Bastio surgery for refractory left ventricular hypertrophy is:

Accepted Answer

Ventriculectomy

Answer

Patch repair

Answer

Mitral regurgitation repair

Answer

Ventriculoplasty

Question 9

In the CEAP clinical classification, what does C-4b indicate?

Accepted Answer

Lipodermatosclerosis or atrophie blanche

Answer

Edema

Answer

Pigmentation or eczema

Answer

Healed venous ulcer

Question 10

SEPS is a procedure used for what?

Accepted Answer

Veins

Answer

Arteries

Answer

Lymphatics

Answer

AV fistula

Vascular Surgery — MCQs

Vascular Surgery — MCQs

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