Vascular Surgery Practice Questions

Q: What is the most common site for venous thrombosis?

Soleal vein. **Explanation:** The **soleal veins** (located within the soleus muscle in the calf) are the most common site for the initiation of venous thrombosis. These veins are large, thin-walled, valveless sinusoids that act as a reservoir for blood. During periods of immobility, the "calf muscle pump" fails, leading to significant stasis in these sinuses. According to Virchow’s Triad, stasis is a primary driver of thrombus formation, making the soleal veins the most frequent nidus for Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT). **Analysis of Options:** * **B. Soleal vein (Correct):** Most DVTs originate here. While many remain asymptomatic and undergo spontaneous lysis, they can propagate proximally to involve the popliteal and femoral veins. * **A. Popliteal vein:** This is a common site for *extension* of a calf thrombus, but it is not the most common site of primary origin. * **C. Femoral vein:** Though clinically significant due to a higher risk of pulmonary embolism (PE) when involved, primary thrombosis here is less common than in the calf sinuses. * **D. Internal iliac vein:** Thrombosis here is rare compared to the lower limb and is usually associated with pelvic surgery, trauma, or malignancy. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Most common site for DVT:** Soleal veins (Calf sinusoids). * **Most common source of clinically significant Pulmonary Embolism:** Iliofemoral veins (proximal DVT). * **Gold Standard Investigation for DVT:** Contrast Venography (rarely used now). * **Investigation of Choice (IOC):** Color Doppler (Duplex) Ultrasonography. * **Homan’s Sign:** Pain in the calf on dorsiflexion of the foot (low sensitivity and specificity).

Q: Visceral aneurysm is most commonly seen in which of the following locations?

Splenic. **Explanation:** Visceral artery aneurysms (VAAs) are rare but clinically significant due to their risk of rupture. Among all visceral locations, the **Splenic artery** is the most common site, accounting for approximately **60%** of all visceral aneurysms. **1. Why Splenic Artery is Correct:** The splenic artery is the most frequent site for VAAs. They are more common in females (4:1 ratio) and are strongly associated with conditions that increase splenic blood flow or weaken the arterial wall, such as **pregnancy** (due to hormonal changes and portal congestion) and **portal hypertension/cirrhosis**. Most are saccular and located in the distal third of the artery. **2. Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Renal Artery (B):** This is the second most common site (approx. 20-25%). They are often associated with fibromuscular dysplasia and hypertension. * **Hepatic Artery (C):** These account for about 20% of VAAs. They are more common in males and are often associated with trauma, infection, or vasculitis. * **Coronary Artery (D):** While serious, coronary aneurysms are not classified as "visceral" aneurysms in the standard surgical context and are significantly rarer than splenic aneurysms. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **The "Double Rupture" Phenomenon:** Splenic aneurysms can rupture first into the lesser sac (contained) and then into the general peritoneal cavity (free rupture). * **Indications for Surgery:** Treatment is generally indicated if the aneurysm is **>2 cm**, in **pregnant women**, or in women of childbearing age (due to high mortality risk during pregnancy). * **Most common cause:** Medial degeneration/atherosclerosis.

Q: A 70-year-old man presents with right flank pain that radiates to his groin. He has a long history of heavy smoking and alcohol use and reports passing a kidney stone approximately 20 years prior to this event. His past medical history is also remarkable for diabetes mellitus, high cholesterol, and obesity. A computed tomography scan reveals a right 7-mm ureteral stone. In addition, coronal imaging was obtained. Which of the following is the greatest risk factor for the development of additional findings on the imaging study?

History of smoking. ***History of smoking*** - **Smoking** is the strongest modifiable risk factor for **abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA)**, which is the likely incidental finding on coronal CT imaging in this elderly male patient. - **Tobacco use** causes **endothelial dysfunction**, **atherosclerosis**, and **elastin degradation** in the aortic wall, leading to aneurysmal dilatation with a 5-10 fold increased risk compared to non-smokers. *Age* - While **advanced age** (>65 years) is a significant risk factor for AAA, it is less predictive than smoking history in determining aneurysm development. - Age alone without other risk factors has a much lower relative risk compared to the **synergistic effect** of age plus smoking. *History of urolithiasis* - **Kidney stones** are unrelated to the development of **abdominal aortic aneurysms** and do not increase AAA risk. - Prior **urolithiasis** may indicate metabolic abnormalities but has no direct association with **aortic wall pathology**. *Metabolic syndrome* - While **diabetes**, **obesity**, and **hyperlipidemia** contribute to **cardiovascular disease**, they are weaker risk factors for AAA compared to smoking. - **Metabolic syndrome** primarily increases risk through **atherosclerotic mechanisms** but lacks the direct **elastolytic effects** on the aortic wall that smoking provides.

Q: Which of the following is NOT true regarding Milroy's disease?

It typically involves unilateral upper and lower limbs.. **Explanation:** Milroy’s disease is a specific type of **Primary Congenital Lymphedema** caused by a mutation in the **FLT4 gene**, which encodes the **VEGFR-3** (Vascular Endothelial Growth Factor Receptor 3). This mutation leads to the failure of lymphatic vessel development. **Why Option B is the correct answer (False statement):** Milroy’s disease characteristically presents as **bilateral** swelling of the **lower limbs** only. It is present at birth or develops within the first year of life. Involvement of the upper limbs is extremely rare, and unilateral presentation is not the classic clinical picture. **Analysis of other options:** * **Option A (Autosomal Dominant):** This is true. It follows an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern with variable expressivity. * **Option C (Face involvement):** While rare, Milroy’s disease can occasionally be associated with facial edema, hydrocele, or prominent veins. * **Option D (Congenital Lymphedema):** This is true. By definition, Milroy’s is "Lymphedema Praecox" (specifically the congenital subtype), as it is present at birth. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Classification by Age:** * **Milroy’s Disease:** Congenital (at birth). * **Meige’s Disease:** Lymphedema Praecox (at puberty/most common primary type). * **Lymphedema Tarda:** Occurs after age 35. * **Stemmer’s Sign:** Inability to pinch the skin on the dorsal surface of the base of the second toe; a pathognomonic sign of lymphedema. * **Imaging:** **Lymphoscintigraphy** is the gold standard investigation for confirming the diagnosis and assessing lymphatic flow.

Q: Which of the following are features of Klippel-Trenaunay syndrome?

All features are true.. **Explanation:** **Klippel-Trenaunay Syndrome (KTS)** is a rare congenital vascular disorder characterized by a classic triad of clinical features. Understanding the pathophysiology is crucial for NEET-PG, as management differs significantly from standard venous disease. 1. **Why Option D is Correct:** All listed features are characteristic of KTS: * **Cutaneous Hemangioma:** Specifically, a "Port-wine stain" (capillary malformation) is usually the first sign. * **Varicose Veins:** Often presenting as a large lateral venous channel (Servelle-Martorell vein). * **Limb Hypertrophy:** Soft tissue and bony overgrowth of the affected extremity. * **Anomalous Deep Veins:** Patients frequently have hypoplastic or absent deep venous systems. * **Hazardous Saphenous Stripping:** Because the deep venous system is often absent or incompetent, the superficial varicose veins act as the **primary drainage** for the limb. Stripping these veins can lead to severe venous congestion and limb-threatening ischemia. 2. **Why Other Options are Incorrect:** Options A, B, and C are incorrect because they categorize one or more of these essential diagnostic or management features as "false." In KTS, the presence of deep vein anomalies and the contraindication to traditional vein stripping are defining clinical principles. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Parkes-Weber Syndrome:** Often confused with KTS; it includes the KTS triad plus **clinically significant Arteriovenous (AV) fistulas**. * **Diagnosis:** Duplex ultrasonography is the initial investigation, but **MR Venography** is the gold standard to assess the deep venous system. * **Management:** Primarily conservative (compression stockings). Surgery is reserved for complications and only after confirming a patent deep venous system.

Q: A 45-year-old male with a history of chronic smoking presents with pain in his lower limb due to blockage of the femoral artery. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Atherosclerosis. **Explanation:** **Atherosclerosis** is the most common cause of chronic arterial occlusive disease in the lower limbs, especially in patients over 40 with a history of smoking. It is a systemic inflammatory process where lipid-rich plaques accumulate in the tunica intima, leading to progressive narrowing (stenosis) or complete occlusion of large and medium-sized arteries like the femoral artery. Smoking is the most potent modifiable risk factor, accelerating plaque formation and peripheral arterial disease (PAD). **Why other options are incorrect:** * **Thromboangiitis obliterans (Buerger’s Disease):** While strongly associated with smoking, it typically affects **small and medium-sized distal arteries** (radial, tibial, plantar) in younger males (<40 years). It is an inflammatory vasculitis, not a primary blockage of the proximal femoral artery. * **Embolism:** This usually presents as an **acute** event (the "6 Ps": Pain, Pallor, Pulselessness, Paresthesia, Paralysis, Poikilothermia) rather than a chronic presentation. The source is often the heart (atrial fibrillation). * **Arteritis:** This refers to inflammatory conditions (like Takayasu’s). While they cause blockages, they are less common than atherosclerosis in a 45-year-old male smoker and usually involve the aorta or its primary branches. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Most common site of atherosclerosis in the lower limb:** The **Adductor (Hunter’s) canal**, where the superficial femoral artery is most vulnerable. * **Leriche Syndrome:** A triad of claudication (buttock/thigh), impotence, and absent femoral pulses due to aortoiliac occlusion. * **Ankle-Brachial Index (ABI):** The best initial screening test for PAD. A value **<0.9** is diagnostic; **<0.4** indicates critical limb ischemia. * **Management:** Smoking cessation is the single most important step to prevent disease progression.

Question 1

What is the most common site for venous thrombosis?

Accepted Answer

Soleal vein

Answer

Popliteal vein

Answer

Femoral vein

Answer

Internal iliac vein

Question 2

Visceral aneurysm is most commonly seen in which of the following locations?

Accepted Answer

Splenic

Answer

Renal

Answer

Hepatic

Answer

Coronary

Question 3

Which test is NOT used to demonstrate the presence of collateral circulation of the hand?

Accepted Answer

Allen's test

Answer

Kety Schmidt test

Answer

Sellick's test

Answer

Swan Ganz test

Question 4

A 70-year-old man presents with right flank pain that radiates to his groin. He has a long history of heavy smoking and alcohol use and reports passing a kidney stone approximately 20 years prior to this event. His past medical history is also remarkable for diabetes mellitus, high cholesterol, and obesity. A computed tomography scan reveals a right 7-mm ureteral stone. In addition, coronal imaging was obtained. Which of the following is the greatest risk factor for the development of additional findings on the imaging study?

Accepted Answer

History of smoking

Answer

Age

Answer

History of urolithiasis

Answer

Metabolic syndrome

Question 5

Which of the following is NOT true regarding Milroy's disease?

Accepted Answer

It typically involves unilateral upper and lower limbs.

Answer

It is autosomal dominant.

Answer

The face may be involved.

Answer

It is a form of congenital lymphedema.

Question 6

Which of the following are features of Klippel-Trenaunay syndrome?

Accepted Answer

All features are true.

Answer

Varicose veins, cutaneous hemangioma, limb hypertrophy, and anomalous deep veins are true, while saphenous vein stripping is hazardous is false.

Answer

Varicose veins, cutaneous hemangioma, limb hypertrophy, and saphenous vein stripping being hazardous are true, while anomalous deep veins is false.

Answer

Varicose veins and limb hypertrophy and saphenous vein stripping being hazardous are true, while cutaneous hemangioma and anomalous deep veins are false.

Question 7

What is the most common bacterial infection associated with lymphedema?

Accepted Answer

Streptococcus

Answer

Staphylococcus

Answer

E. coli

Answer

Pseudomonas

Question 8

A 45-year-old male with a history of chronic smoking presents with pain in his lower limb due to blockage of the femoral artery. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Atherosclerosis

Answer

Thromboangiitis obliterans

Answer

Embolism

Answer

Arteritis

Question 9

Which of the following drugs is NOT used for sclerotherapy of varicose veins?

Accepted Answer

Ethanol

Answer

Ethanolamine oleate

Answer

Polidocanol

Answer

Sodium tetradecyl sulfate

Question 10

What is true about venous ulcers?

Accepted Answer

The deep venous system should always be examined

Answer

Stripping is always performed

Answer

A biopsy should be taken from a chronic ulcer

Answer

Associated with Klippel-Trenaunay syndrome

Vascular Surgery — MCQs

Vascular Surgery — MCQs

On this page

Practice by Chapter

Want unlimited practice?