NEET-PG 2023 Practice Questions

Q: Which of the following is the sensitive indicator to assess the availability, utilization, and effectiveness of healthcare in a community?

Infant mortality rate. ***Infant mortality rate*** - The **infant mortality rate (IMR)** is widely considered a sensitive indicator of a community's health status, including access to and quality of healthcare, nutrition, and environmental conditions. - A high IMR often reflects inadequate maternal and child health services, poor sanitation, and socioeconomic disparities within a population. *Maternal mortality rate* - While a critical indicator of the health system's ability to provide safe pregnancy and childbirth services, the **maternal mortality rate (MMR)** specifically reflects women's health during gestation and postpartum. - It does not encompass the broader spectrum of health determinants that affect infants, such as postnatal care, nutrition, and infectious disease control, as comprehensively as IMR. *Immunization coverage* - **Immunization coverage** is an excellent indicator of the reach and effectiveness of preventive health services for infectious diseases. - However, it is a specific measure of program implementation, not a comprehensive indicator of overall healthcare availability, utilization, or effectiveness across all health domains. *Disability-adjusted life years* - **Disability-adjusted life years (DALYs)** measure the total healthy life years lost due to premature mortality and disability from specific diseases and injuries. - While a valuable concept for burden of disease analysis, DALYs are a complex measure of population health outcome, rather than a direct and sensitive indicator of the operational aspects of healthcare like availability and utilization.

Q: A construction worker came to the OPD complaining of white fingers. He has been working in the cement and concrete industry and has been working on heavy machinery drills, wood, and furniture polishing for 20 years. What is the most likely etiology for this condition?

Continuous exposure to drills and machines. ***Continuous exposure to drills and machines*** - The use of **heavy machinery drills** subjects the hands to **vibration**, which is a well-known cause of **Raynaud's phenomenon**, presenting as "white fingers" due to **vasospasm**. - This condition, often referred to as **vibration white finger**, is a common occupational hazard for workers using vibratory tools over long periods. *Candidal infection of the fingers due to continuous exposure to water* - While prolonged exposure to moisture can cause **Candidal infections** (e.g., paronychia), this typically presents as **redness, swelling, and pain** around the nails or skin, not the characteristic "white fingers" of Raynaud's. - White fingers due to candidiasis are not a primary manifestation and lack the **vasospastic component** seen with vibration exposure. *Exposure to thinners and paints* - Exposure to chemicals like **thinners and paints** can cause **irritant or allergic contact dermatitis**, leading to redness, itching, and skin lesions. - However, direct exposure to these substances is not typically associated with the sudden, episodic **blanching of fingers** characteristic of Raynaud's phenomenon. *Continuous exposure to cement and concrete* - **Cement and concrete** exposure often leads to **irritant or allergic contact dermatitis** due to the alkaline nature of cement, causing dryness, cracking, and eczema. - This type of exposure does not directly cause the **vasospastic episodes** that result in "white fingers."

Q: In a 10-year-old school child, which of the following vaccines is given as a part of the school immunization program?

TT/Td vaccine. ***TT/Td vaccine*** - The **tetanus toxoid (TT)** or **tetanus and diphtheria (Td) vaccine** is commonly administered to school-aged children as a booster to maintain immunity against these diseases. - This is part of many national immunization programs, including those in schools, to ensure continued protection beyond early childhood vaccinations. *Measles vaccine* - The **measles vaccine (MMR)** is typically given at 9-12 months and a second dose around 4-6 years of age, much earlier than 10 years. - While essential, it's usually completed before a child reaches the age of 10 for primary vaccination. *Rotavirus vaccine* - The **rotavirus vaccine** is administered to infants, usually before 6 months of age, to protect against severe rotavirus gastroenteritis. - It is not part of school immunization programs for 10-year-olds. *Hepatitis B vaccine* - The **Hepatitis B vaccine** is typically given at birth and completed during infancy, with a series of doses before 1 year of age. - While crucial for early protection, it is not a routine vaccination for 10-year-olds within a school immunization program unless for catch-up reasons.

Q: A bronchial asthma patient on inhalational steroids presented with white patchy lesions on the tongue and buccal mucosa. What condition is likely to be present in this patient?

Oral candidiasis. **Oral candidiasis** - **Inhaled corticosteroids** can suppress the local immune response in the oral cavity, creating an environment conducive to the overgrowth of *Candida albicans*. - The classic presentation includes **white patchy lesions** on the tongue and buccal mucosa, which can often be scraped off. *Oral lichen planus* - Characterized by **reticular (Wickham's striae)**, papular, or erosive lesions, which are often bilateral and symmetric [1]. - While it can present with white lesions, they are typically not easily scraped off and are not primarily associated with inhaled corticosteroid use [1]. *Aphthous ulcers* - These are typically **painful, solitary, or multiple ulcers** with a red halo and a yellowish-gray center [2]. - They are distinct from widespread white patchy lesions and are not directly caused by inhaled corticosteroid use [2]. *Oral leukoplakia* - Defined as a **white patch or plaque** on the oral mucosa that cannot be characterized clinically or pathologically as any other disease, and which is not removable by scraping. - It is often associated with tobacco use and alcohol consumption, and carries a risk of malignancy; it does not typically appear as a direct side effect of inhaled corticosteroids.

Q: A patient hailing from Delhi presents with fever, arthralgia, and extensive petechial rash for 3 days. Lab investigations revealed a hemoglobin of 9 g/ dL, a white blood cell count of 9000 cells/mm3, a platelet count of 20000 cells/mm3, and a prolonged bleeding time. The clotting time was normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Dengue. Dengue - The combination of **fever, arthralgia, extensive petechial rash**, and severe **thrombocytopenia** (platelet count 20,000/mm³) with **prolonged bleeding time** is highly characteristic of severe dengue infection, especially in an endemic area like Delhi [1]. - While leukocytosis (WBC 9000/mm³) is not typical for dengue (usually causes leukopenia), the other features strongly point to dengue hemorrhagic fever [1]. *Malaria* - Typically presents with **intermittent high fever**, chills, and sweats. While it can cause some thrombocytopenia and anemia, the **extensive petechial rash** is not a characteristic feature. - **Thrombocytopenia** in malaria is usually milder than observed here, and prolonged bleeding time is less common [2]. *Scrub typhus* - Caused by Orientia tsutsugamushi, it is characterized by **fever, headache, myalgia, and a characteristic eschar** (necrotic ulcer) at the bite site, which is not mentioned. - While it can cause rash and some thrombocytopenia, the **petechial rash** and such severe thrombocytopenia with prolonged bleeding time are less typical. *Typhoid* - Presents with **sustained high fever**, headache, bradycardia, and sometimes a **rose spot rash** (maculopapular), which is different from a petechial rash. - Typhoid typically causes **leukopenia** and can lead to gastrointestinal complications like intestinal bleeding, but severe thrombocytopenia and extensive petechiae are not common presenting features.

Q: A young male came to the hospital with a clean-cut wound without any bleeding. The patient received a full course of tetanus vaccination 10 years ago. What is the best management for this patient?

Single-dose tetanus toxoid. ***Single-dose tetanus toxoid*** - For a **clean wound** in a patient who completed **primary tetanus vaccination** and received their last dose **≥10 years ago**, a **single booster dose** of tetanus toxoid is recommended. - The patient's last vaccination was exactly **10 years ago**, meeting the threshold for booster administration to maintain adequate **tetanus immunity**. *Human tetanus immunoglobulin only* - **Tetanus immunoglobulin (TIG)** provides **passive immunity** and is reserved for patients with **unknown vaccination status** or **high-risk contaminated wounds**. - This patient has a **clean-cut wound** and **documented vaccination history**, making active immunization with toxoid more appropriate than passive immunization. *Human tetanus immunoglobulin and a full course of vaccine* - This combination is indicated for **unvaccinated patients** or those with **unknown vaccination status** who have **contaminated wounds** (dirty, puncture wounds). - The patient has **completed primary vaccination** and has a **clean wound**, making a full course excessive and TIG unnecessary. *No treatment required* - **Tetanus immunity wanes** over time, and for **clean wounds**, booster is recommended when the last dose was **≥10 years ago** (vs. ≥5 years for dirty wounds). - Since the patient's last vaccination was **exactly 10 years ago**, a booster dose is required to maintain protective immunity levels.

Q: A patient comes to the casualty with organophosphate poisoning. He was started on atropine infusion and pralidoxime. After 2 hours, the patient had a sudden rise in temperature. What is the most likely cause of the fever?

Fever due to atropine toxicity.. ***Fever due to atropine toxicity.*** - **Atropine** blocks muscarinic receptors, leading to inhibition of **sweat glands** and subsequent rise in body temperature (hyperthermia), especially with high doses or prolonged infusion. - Given the patient is receiving an **atropine infusion** and developed fever, **atropine toxicity** is a primary concern. *Side effect of pralidoxime.* - While pralidoxime can cause side effects like dizziness, blurred vision, or tachycardia, **fever is not a typical side effect** of pralidoxime. - Pralidoxime works by **regenerating acetylcholinesterase** [2, 3] and does not directly interfere with thermoregulation in a way that would cause fever. *Result of organophosphate poisoning.* - **Organophosphate poisoning** typically causes **hypothermia** due to excessive cholinergic stimulation leading to peripheral vasodilation and increased sweating [1]. - **Fever** is not a direct result of the acute phase of organophosphate poisoning itself, but rather a complication of treatment or other factors. *Unrelated or unknown cause.* - While possible, it's less likely to be "unrelated or unknown" when a clear pharmacological explanation (**atropine toxicity**) exists for fever in the context of the patient's treatment. - It would be important to first rule out known causes related to the ongoing treatment before attributing it to an unknown cause.

Q: Chloride level in sweat is used in the diagnosis of which disease?

Cystic fibrosis. ***Cystic fibrosis*** - **Cystic fibrosis** is characterized by a defect in the **CFTR protein**, leading to impaired chloride transport in epithelial cells. - This defect results in abnormally high salt content in sweat, making the **sweat chloride test** the gold standard for diagnosis. *Phenylketonuria* - **Phenylketonuria (PKU)** is a metabolic disorder involving the inability to metabolize **phenylalanine**, leading to its accumulation in the blood. - Diagnosis is typically made via **newborn screening** using blood tests, not sweat chloride levels. *Gaucher's disease* - **Gaucher's disease** is a lysosomal storage disorder caused by a deficiency in the enzyme **beta-glucosidase**, leading to lipid accumulation. - Diagnosis involves enzyme assays from blood or tissue samples, or genetic testing, not sweat chloride analysis. *Osteogenesis imperfecta* - **Osteogenesis imperfecta** is a genetic disorder of **collagen synthesis**, primarily characterized by bone fragility, blue sclerae, and hearing loss. - Diagnosis is based on clinical features, imaging, and genetic testing, with no relevance to sweat chloride levels. *Tay-Sachs disease* - **Tay-Sachs disease** is a lysosomal storage disorder caused by deficiency of **hexosaminidase A**, leading to accumulation of GM2 ganglioside in neurons. - Diagnosis is made through **enzyme assay** or **genetic testing**, not sweat chloride measurement.

Q: A 23-year-old male patient presents with midline swelling in the neck. The swelling moves with deglutition and protrusion of the tongue. What is the likely diagnosis?

Thyroglossal cyst. ***Thyroglossal cyst*** - A **thyroglossal cyst** is a congenital anomaly that arises from the persistent **thyroglossal duct**, a remnant of the thyroid's embryologic descent. - Its classic diagnostic feature is its movement with **deglutition** (due to attachment to the hyoid bone, which moves during swallowing) and **protrusion of the tongue** (as the thyroglossal duct is connected to the base of the tongue). *Brachial cyst* - A **brachial cyst** is a congenital neck mass that typically presents as a lateral neck swelling, often located along the anterior border of the **sternocleidomastoid muscle**. - Unlike a thyroglossal cyst, it does not typically move with **deglutition** or **tongue protrusion**. *Plunging ranula* - A **plunging ranula** is a type of mucocele that arises from the **sublingual gland** and extends below the mylohyoid muscle into the neck. - It presents as a cervical mass but is typically located in the floor of the mouth or submandibular region and does not move with **deglutition** or **tongue protrusion**. *Dermoid cyst* - A **dermoid cyst** is a congenital cyst that can occur anywhere on the body, including the head and neck, often presenting as a painless mass. - It arises from sequestered embryonic ectoderm and mesoderm, containing skin appendages, but it does not move with **deglutition** or **tongue protrusion**.

Q: Which of the following is the drug of choice for preoperative antibiotic prophylaxis in a patient undergoing cardiac surgery?

Cefazolin. ***Cefazolin*** - **Cefazolin** is a first-generation cephalosporin that provides excellent coverage against **Staphylococcus aureus** and **Streptococcus species**, which are common pathogens in surgical site infections in cardiac surgery. - It has a favorable safety profile, long half-life allowing for convenient dosing, and good tissue penetration, making it the preferred choice for **preoperative antibiotic prophylaxis** in most cardiac surgery cases. *Penicillin* - **Penicillin** has a narrow spectrum of activity compared to cefazolin and does not adequately cover all potential pathogens in cardiac surgery, particularly **methicillin-susceptible Staphylococcus aureus (MSSA)**. - Due to its limited spectrum, penicillin is generally not recommended for routine **surgical prophylaxis**, especially in complex procedures like cardiac surgery. *Clindamycin* - **Clindamycin** is an alternative for patients with **beta-lactam allergies**, providing coverage against gram-positive organisms and anaerobes. - However, for routine prophylaxis without a specific allergy or high risk of resistant organisms, **clindamycin** is less effective than cefazolin against the most prevalent surgical pathogens. *Vancomycin* - **Vancomycin** is reserved for patients with a known **penicillin allergy** or a high risk of **methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)** colonization or infection. - Its routine use as a primary prophylactic agent in cardiac surgery is discouraged to prevent the development of **vancomycin resistance**.

Question 1

Which of the following is the sensitive indicator to assess the availability, utilization, and effectiveness of healthcare in a community?

Accepted Answer

Infant mortality rate

Answer

Maternal mortality rate

Answer

Immunization coverage

Answer

Disability-adjusted life years

Question 2

A construction worker came to the OPD complaining of white fingers. He has been working in the cement and concrete industry and has been working on heavy machinery drills, wood, and furniture polishing for 20 years. What is the most likely etiology for this condition?

Accepted Answer

Continuous exposure to drills and machines

Answer

Candidal infection of the fingers due to continuous exposure to water

Answer

Exposure to thinners and paints

Answer

Continuous exposure to cement and concrete

Question 3

In a 10-year-old school child, which of the following vaccines is given as a part of the school immunization program?

Accepted Answer

TT/Td vaccine

Answer

Measles vaccine

Answer

Rotavirus vaccine

Answer

Hepatitis B vaccine

Question 4

A bronchial asthma patient on inhalational steroids presented with white patchy lesions on the tongue and buccal mucosa. What condition is likely to be present in this patient?

Accepted Answer

Oral candidiasis

Answer

Oral lichen planus

Answer

Aphthous ulcers

Answer

Oral leukoplakia

Question 5

A patient hailing from Delhi presents with fever, arthralgia, and extensive petechial rash for 3    days. Lab investigations revealed a hemoglobin of 9 g/ dL, a white blood cell count of 9000    cells/mm3, a platelet count of 20000 cells/mm3, and a prolonged bleeding time. The clotting    time was normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Dengue

Answer

Malaria

Answer

Scrub typhus

Answer

Typhoid

Question 6

A young male came to the hospital with a clean-cut wound without any bleeding. The patient    received a full course of tetanus vaccination 10 years ago. What is the best management for    this patient?

Accepted Answer

Single-dose tetanus toxoid

Answer

Human tetanus immunoglobulin only

Answer

Human tetanus immunoglobulin and a full course of vaccine

Answer

No treatment required

Question 7

A patient comes to the casualty with organophosphate poisoning. He was started on atropine infusion and pralidoxime. After 2 hours, the patient had a sudden rise in temperature. What is the most likely cause of the fever?

Accepted Answer

Fever due to atropine toxicity.

Answer

Side effect of pralidoxime.

Answer

Result of organophosphate poisoning.

Answer

Unrelated or unknown cause.

Question 8

Chloride level in sweat is used in the diagnosis of which disease?

Accepted Answer

Cystic fibrosis

Answer

Phenylketonuria

Answer

Gaucher's disease

Answer

Osteogenesis imperfecta

Answer

Tay-Sachs disease

Question 9

A 23-year-old male patient presents with midline swelling in the neck. The swelling moves with deglutition and protrusion of the tongue. What is the likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Thyroglossal cyst

Answer

Brachial cyst

Answer

Plunging ranula

Answer

Dermoid cyst

Question 10

Which of the following is the drug of choice for preoperative antibiotic prophylaxis in a patient undergoing cardiac surgery?

Accepted Answer

Cefazolin

Answer

Penicillin

Answer

Clindamycin

Answer

Vancomycin

NEET-PG 2023

Community Medicine

Internal Medicine

Pharmacology

Psychiatry

Surgery