NEET-PG 2023 - Internal Medicine Practice Questions

Q: A young patient presents with a large retroperitoneal hemorrhage and a history of intermittent knee swelling after strenuous exercise. There is no history of mucosal bleeding. Which of the following clotting factors is primarily deficient in Hemophilia A?

Factor VIII. ***Factors VIII and IX*** - The symptoms indicate a **hemophilia**, where deficiencies in factors VIII or IX lead to a tendency for **retroperitoneal hemorrhage** and joint swelling, particularly after exercise [1]. - Intermittent swelling of the knees indicates **hemarthrosis**, a common manifestation in hemophilia, supporting the dysfunction of these factors [1]. *Factors XI and XII* - These factors are part of the **intrinsic pathway** but are not primarily associated with **joint bleeding** or sporadic retroperitoneal hemorrhage in young patients. - Deficiencies of these factors typically lead to a milder form of bleeding disorders and not the severe joint symptoms seen here. *Von Willebrand factor* - This factor is crucial for **platelet adhesion** and is associated with **mucosal bleeding**, which is not reported in this patient's history [2]. - The patient's **retroperitoneal hemorrhage** and knee swelling are not characteristic of von Willebrand disease, which typically involves more superficial bleeding [1,2]. *Lupus anticoagulant* - This is an **antiphospholipid antibody** associated with **thrombosis** rather than bleeding, and does not explain the joint swelling or hemorrhagic symptoms. - It leads to a false-positive on coagulation tests and can result in complications like recurrent **thromboembolic events**, rather than bleeding tendencies.

Q: A patient comes with abdominal pain, jaundice, and portal hypertension. Anastomosis between which of the following veins is seen?

Esophageal veins and left gastric veins. ***Esophageal veins and left gastric veins*** - This anastomosis is crucial in **portal hypertension**, as increased pressure in the **portal venous system** (e.g., due to liver cirrhosis) causes blood to back up into the **systemic venous circulation** through these collateral vessels. - This shunting creates **esophageal varices**, which can rupture and lead to life-threatening **upper gastrointestinal bleeding**, commonly presenting with **jaundice** and **abdominal pain** in liver disease. *Left colic vein and middle colic veins* - Both the left colic and middle colic veins are tributaries of the **inferior mesenteric vein** and **superior mesenteric vein**, respectively, and are part of the **portal system**. - While they form an anastomosis (via the **marginal artery of Drummond**), this connection is within the portal system and does not typically serve as a portosystemic shunt to decompress portal hypertension in the way esophageal varices do. *Superior rectal and phrenic veins* - The **superior rectal vein** drains into the **inferior mesenteric vein** (part of the portal system), and the **phrenic veins** drain into the **inferior vena cava** (part of the systemic system). - There is no direct significant portosystemic anastomosis between these two veins that would be clinically relevant in portal hypertension. *Sigmoid and superior rectal veins* - Both the **sigmoid veins** and the **superior rectal vein** are part of the **inferior mesenteric venous system**, which drains into the **portal circulation**. - While there are anastomoses between these veins within the mesenteric circulation, they are not a direct portosystemic shunt used to relieve pressure in portal hypertension causing the described symptoms.

Q: A patient comes to the casualty with a severe headache. His BP was found to be 160/100 mmHg. CT scan revealed a subarachnoid hemorrhage. What is the next best step in the management of this patient?

Angiography. ***Angiography*** - Following the diagnosis of **subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH)** by CT scan, **cerebral angiography** is the next crucial step to identify the source of bleeding. - This procedure helps locate and characterize the **aneurysm** or other vascular malformations, which is essential for planning definitive treatment. *Nimodipine* - **Nimodipine** is a calcium channel blocker used to prevent and treat **vasospasm**, a common complication after SAH. - While important in SAH management, it is typically initiated after the source of bleeding has been identified and secured, or as an adjunct immediately after diagnosis, but not the *next best step* before identifying the source. *Surgery* - **Surgical clipping** or **endovascular coiling** are definitive treatments for ruptured aneurysms after SAH. - However, surgery is performed *after* the aneurysm has been identified and localized through angiography, making angiography the prerequisite next step. *Fibrinolytic therapy* - **Fibrinolytic therapy** is used to dissolve blood clots in conditions like ischemic stroke or myocardial infarction. - It is **contraindicated** in hemorrhagic stroke, including subarachnoid hemorrhage, as it would worsen the bleeding.

Q: Which of the following is a known risk factor for cholangiocarcinoma?

Clonorchis sinensis infestation. ***Clonorchis sinensis infestation*** - **Clonorchis sinensis**, also known as the Chinese liver fluke, is a well-established and significant risk factor for the development of **cholangiocarcinoma**. - Chronic inflammation and irritation of the bile ducts caused by the parasite are believed to promote malignant transformation. *Giardia lamblia (intestinal protozoa) infection* - **Giardia lamblia** is a common intestinal parasite causing giardiasis, characterized by diarrhea and malabsorption. - While it affects the gastrointestinal tract, there is **no known association** between *Giardia* infection and an increased risk of cholangiocarcinoma. *Paragonimus westermani infestation* - **Paragonimus westermani** is a lung fluke that primarily causes paragonimiasis, affecting the lungs and leading to cough and hemoptysis. - This parasite is not associated with direct bile duct inflammation or an increased risk of **cholangiocarcinoma**. *Ascaris lumbricoides (roundworm) infection* - **Ascaris lumbricoides** is a large intestinal roundworm that can cause intestinal obstruction or nutrient deficiencies. - Although it can occasionally migrate into the biliary tree, it is **not considered a risk factor** for cholangiocarcinoma [1].

Q: A patient presents with fever and jaundice after repairing sewers. What is the most appropriate test to diagnose the infection in this patient?

Microscopic agglutination test. ***Microscopic agglutination test*** - The patient's presentation (fever, jaundice, history of repairing sewers) is highly suggestive of **leptospirosis** [1]. The **Microscopic Agglutination Test (MAT)** is considered the gold standard for diagnosing leptospirosis, as it directly detects antibodies against *Leptospira* serovars [1]. - MAT provides **serovar-specific results** and is highly sensitive and specific, especially when acute and convalescent phase sera are tested [1]. *Weil Felix test* - The Weil-Felix test is used to diagnose **rickettsial infections**, not leptospirosis. - It detects antibodies that cross-react with antigens of certain *Proteus* species. *Paul Bunnell test* - The Paul-Bunnell test is used to detect **heterophile antibodies** associated with **infectious mononucleosis** (Epstein-Barr virus infection). - This test is not relevant for diagnosing bacterial infections like leptospirosis. *Microimmunofluorescence test* - The microimmunofluorescence (MIF) test is primarily used for the diagnosis of **chlamydial infections** and sometimes for rickettsial diseases. - While an antibody-detection test, it is not the standard or preferred method for diagnosing leptospirosis.

Q: A patient presents with severe abdominal pain and jaundice. Imaging reveals calcified cysts in the liver, and serological testing is positive for Echinococcus. What is a potential complication of this infection?

Secondary bacterial infection of cysts. ***Secondary bacterial infection of cysts*** - **Hydatid cysts** can become secondarily infected, typically after rupture or surgical manipulation, leading to an **abscess formation** within the liver. - This complication can present with features like fever, worsening abdominal pain, and an elevated **white blood cell count**, distinct from the initial presentation. *Rupture of cysts leading to anaphylactic shock* - While rupture of **hydatid cysts** can lead to **anaphylactic shock** due to the release of hydatid fluid, it is not the *most common immediate complication* or the scenario implied by abdominal pain and jaundice. - **Anaphylaxis** implies a rapid, severe systemic allergic reaction, which is a life-threatening acute event. *Portal hypertension due to cyst compression* - While large cysts can compress structures, significant **portal hypertension** due to direct compression of the portal vein by **hydatid cysts** is rare. - More commonly, portal hypertension is a complication of advanced **cirrhosis**, not typically direct cyst compression in the early stages described. *No significant complications* - **Echinococcosis** (hydatid disease) is a serious parasitic infection that almost always leads to significant morbidity if left untreated. - Cysts grow over time and inevitably cause **organ dysfunction**, pain, obstruction, or other complications.

Q: Which of the following is not the component of qSOFA?

Unequally dilated pupils. ***Unequally dilated pupils*** - **Unequally dilated pupils** are not a component of the **qSOFA** score. This finding can be indicative of neurological issues such as increased **intracranial pressure** or **uncal herniation**, but not directly part of the sepsis screening tool [1]. - The qSOFA score focuses on easily obtainable clinical signs to rapidly identify patients at risk for poor outcomes from **sepsis**. *Respiratory rate >22/min* - A **respiratory rate greater than 22 breaths per minute** is one of the three criteria for the **qSOFA** score, indicating significant physiological stress. - This elevated respiratory rate suggests an increased work of breathing, often due to **metabolic acidosis** or **systemic inflammation** associated with sepsis. *Altered mental status* - **Altered mental status** (e.g., Glasgow Coma Scale score less than 15) is a core component of the **qSOFA** score [1]. - This sign reflects **cerebral hypoperfusion** or **encephalopathy** due to the systemic effects of sepsis [1]. *Systolic BP<100 mmHg* - A **systolic blood pressure less than 100 mmHg** is another key criterion of the **qSOFA** score. - This indicates **hypotension** and suggests inadequate tissue perfusion, a critical sign of **circulatory dysfunction** in sepsis [1].

Q: A 29-year-old patient presents with focal seizures. MRI shows frontal and temporal enhancement. What is the most probable diagnosis?

Herpes simplex encephalitis. ***Herpes simplex encephalitis*** - **Herpes simplex encephalitis (HSE)** characteristically causes inflammation and damage in the **frontal** and **temporal lobes**, leading to focal neurological deficits and seizures [1]. - MRI findings of **enhancement** in these specific brain regions are highly suggestive of HSE. *Enterovirus encephalitis* - **Enterovirus encephalitis** typically affects a broader range of brain regions and less commonly presents with the focal frontal and temporal enhancement seen in HSE. - While it can cause seizures, the MRI findings are not as specific for this diagnosis. *Japanese encephalitis* - **Japanese encephalitis** is geographically restricted to parts of Asia and is transmitted by mosquitoes. The clinical presentation typically includes diffuse encephalitic symptoms rather than focal frontal/temporal involvement and enhancement on MRI. - This diagnosis would be unlikely without a relevant travel history and exposure. *Meningococcal meningitis* - **Meningococcal meningitis** is an infection of the **meninges**, the membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord, not primarily the brain tissue itself. - MRI would typically show inflammation and enhancement of the meninges, rather than focal parenchymal (brain tissue) enhancement in the frontal and temporal lobes.

Q: All the following nerves are involved in entrapment neuropathy except -

Femoral nerve. ***Femoral nerve*** - While the femoral nerve can be injured, it is **uncommonly involved** in entrapment neuropathy compared to other nerves. - Entrapment of the femoral nerve is rare and typically occurs in the **pelvis** or **inguinal region**, often due to trauma or mass effect. *Median nerve* - The median nerve is classically involved in **carpal tunnel syndrome**, where it is compressed at the wrist [1], [2]. - Symptoms include pain, numbness, and tingling in the thumb, index, middle, and radial half of the ring finger [1]. *Ulnar nerve* - The ulnar nerve is commonly entrapped at the **cubital tunnel** (elbow) or the **Guyon's canal** (wrist) [1]. - This leads to symptoms such as numbness and weakness in the small finger and ulnar half of the ring finger [1]. *Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh* - This nerve is frequently entrapped as it passes under the **inguinal ligament**, causing **meralgia paresthetica**. - Symptoms include burning pain and numbness on the lateral aspect of the thigh.

Q: Which of these is least effective as first-line treatment for dangerous hyperkalemia?

Intravenous sodium bicarbonate. ***Intravenous sodium bicarbonate*** - While it can drive potassium into cells, its effect is often **delayed and unreliable** in acute, dangerous hyperkalemia, especially without concurrent acidosis. - Its efficacy is most pronounced when hyperkalemia is associated with **metabolic acidosis**, which is not always the primary driving factor of dangerous hyperkalemia. *Calcium chloride injection* - This is a **first-line treatment** for dangerous hyperkalemia, as it **stabilizes the cardiac membrane** by antagonizing the direct effects of potassium on myocardial excitability [1]. - It does not lower serum potassium levels but **protects the heart** from life-threatening arrhythmias, buying time for other therapies to reduce potassium [1]. *Beta-2 agonist (Salbutamol)* - **Beta-2 agonists** like salbutamol are effective in shifting potassium **intracellularly**, thereby lowering serum potassium levels. - This effect is mediated by stimulating the **Na+/K+-ATPase pump** on cell membranes. *Dialysis (Hemodialysis)* - **Hemodialysis** is the **most effective and rapid** method for removing excess potassium from the body, especially in cases of severe or refractory hyperkalemia. - It provides definitive treatment by directly **filtering potassium** from the blood, and is often considered when other measures fail or in patients with kidney failure.

Question 1

A young patient presents with a large retroperitoneal hemorrhage and a history of intermittent knee swelling after strenuous exercise. There is no history of mucosal bleeding. Which of the following clotting factors is primarily deficient in Hemophilia A?

Accepted Answer

Factor VIII

Answer

Von Willebrand factor

Answer

Lupus anticoagulant

Answer

Factor IX

Question 2

A patient comes with abdominal pain, jaundice, and portal hypertension. Anastomosis    between which of the following veins is seen?

Accepted Answer

Esophageal veins and left gastric veins

Answer

Left colic vein and middle colic veins

Answer

Superior rectal and phrenic veins

Answer

Sigmoid and superior rectal veins

Question 3

A patient comes to the casualty with a severe headache. His BP was found to be 160/100    mmHg. CT scan revealed a subarachnoid hemorrhage. What is the next best step in the    management of this patient?

Accepted Answer

Angiography

Answer

Nimodipine

Answer

Surgery

Answer

Fibrinolytic therapy

Question 4

Which of the following is a known risk factor for cholangiocarcinoma?

Accepted Answer

Clonorchis sinensis infestation

Answer

Giardia lamblia (intestinal protozoa) infection

Answer

Ascaris lumbricoides (roundworm) infection

Answer

Paragonimus westermani infestation

Question 5

A patient presents with fever and jaundice after repairing sewers. What is the most appropriate test to diagnose the infection in this patient?

Accepted Answer

Microscopic agglutination test

Answer

Weil Felix test

Answer

Paul Bunnell test

Answer

Microimmunofluorescence test

Question 6

A patient presents with severe abdominal pain and jaundice. Imaging reveals calcified cysts in the liver, and serological testing is positive for Echinococcus. What is a potential complication of this infection?

Accepted Answer

Secondary bacterial infection of cysts

Answer

Portal hypertension due to cyst compression

Answer

Rupture of cysts leading to anaphylactic shock

Answer

No significant complications

Question 7

Which of the following is not the component of qSOFA?

Accepted Answer

Unequally dilated pupils

Answer

Respiratory rate >22/min

Answer

Altered mental status

Answer

Systolic BP<100 mmHg

Question 8

A 29-year-old patient presents with focal seizures. MRI shows frontal and temporal enhancement. What is the most probable diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Herpes simplex encephalitis

Answer

Enterovirus encephalitis

Answer

Japanese encephalitis

Answer

Meningococcal meningitis

Question 9

All the following nerves are involved in entrapment neuropathy except -

Accepted Answer

Femoral nerve

Answer

Median nerve

Answer

Ulnar nerve

Answer

Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh

Question 10

Which of these is least effective as first-line treatment for dangerous hyperkalemia?

Accepted Answer

Intravenous sodium bicarbonate

Answer

Calcium chloride injection

Answer

Beta-2 agonist (Salbutamol)

Answer

Dialysis (Hemodialysis)

NEET-PG 2023 — Internal Medicine