NEET-PG 2020 Practice Questions

Q: What is the appropriate color for containers used to dispose of chemical liquid biomedical waste?

Yellow container. ***Yellow container*** - **Yellow containers** are specifically designated for disposal of **chemical liquid biomedical waste** as per BMW Management Rules, 2016. - This includes **disinfectants, chemical waste from laboratories, discarded medicines, and cytotoxic drugs**. - Yellow containers are used for Category 10 waste (Chemical Waste) which comprises chemicals used in production of biologicals, chemicals used in disinfection, and chemical liquid waste. - This waste typically requires **incineration or plasma pyrolysis** for safe disposal. *White/Translucent container* - **White or translucent containers** are used for **sharp waste** including needles, syringes with fixed needles, scalpels, blades, and contaminated broken glass. - This is Category 4 waste under BMW Rules and requires autoclaving or dry heat sterilization followed by shredding or mutilation. - These containers are puncture-proof and leak-proof to prevent needle-stick injuries. *Blue container* - **Blue containers** are designated for **glassware and metallic body implants** that can be recycled after proper disinfection. - This includes broken or unbroken glass vials (without chemical contamination), ampoules, and other glass items. - Also used for disposal of metallic implants removed during surgeries. *Red container* - **Red containers** are used for **contaminated recyclable plastic waste** including tubing, bottles, IV sets without needles, catheters, and urine bags. - This is Category 3 waste which requires autoclaving or microwaving followed by shredding before recycling. - Helps in waste segregation for potential recycling of plastic materials.

Q: Which of the following is a technique/method based on behavioral sciences

Management by objectives. ***Management by objectives (MBO)*** - MBO is a **strategic management model** that aims to improve organizational performance by clearly defining objectives that are agreed to by both management and employees. - This approach is deeply rooted in **behavioral sciences** as it relies on principles of motivation, goal setting, feedback, and participation to influence employee behavior and performance. *Network analysis* - **Network analysis** is a quantitative method used to understand the structure and dynamics of relationships among entities in a system. - While it can be applied to human interactions, its primary focus is on **mathematical and computational modeling** rather than direct behavioral principles. *Systems analysis* - **Systems analysis** is a problem-solving technique that involves breaking down a system into its component parts to study how they interact and contribute to the overall system's function. - It is primarily an **engineering and information technology methodology** focused on optimizing processes and structures, not inherently on human behavior. *Decision making* - **Decision-making** is a cognitive process involving selecting a course of action from several alternatives. - While behavioral sciences study decision-making processes, decision-making itself is a **fundamental human activity** and a subject of various fields (economics, psychology) rather than a single technique primarily "based on behavioral sciences" in the same way MBO is.

Q: Which of the following is not considered an absolute contraindication for the use of an Intra Uterine Contraceptive Device (IUD)?

Uterine malformation. ***Uterine malformation*** - While a uterine malformation can make IUD insertion more difficult or reduce its effectiveness, it is often considered a **relative contraindication**, depending on the specific anomaly and the patient's desire for contraception. - In certain cases, an IUD might still be a viable option, but it requires careful consideration and specialized insertion techniques. *Pregnancy* - The presence of an existing pregnancy is an **absolute contraindication** for IUD insertion, as it can lead to complications such as miscarriage or ectopic pregnancy. - An IUD is a contraceptive device, and inserting it when a woman is already pregnant directly contradicts its purpose and poses significant risks. *Undiagnosed vaginal bleeding* - This is an **absolute contraindication** because it could be a symptom of a serious underlying condition, such as cervical cancer, endometrial cancer, or ectopic pregnancy. - Inserting an IUD before diagnosing the cause of the bleeding could delay treatment of a potentially life-threatening condition and exacerbate the bleeding. *Pelvic inflammatory disease* - Current or recent (within the last 3 months) **pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)** is an **absolute contraindication** due to the increased risk of worsening infection. - IUD insertion can introduce bacteria from the vagina into the uterus, potentially exacerbating an existing infection or causing a new one.

Q: What is the angle shown in the image known as?

Cobb angle. ***Correct Option: Cobb angle*** - The image displays a method for measuring the angle of a spinal curvature, which is known as the **Cobb angle** - This measurement is routinely used to assess the severity of **scoliosis** by drawing lines parallel to the vertebral endplates at the extreme ends of the curve and then determining the angle between these lines - The Cobb angle is the **gold standard** for quantifying scoliosis and monitoring curve progression *Incorrect Option: Bohler angle* - The **Bohler angle** is a measurement used in the assessment of **calcaneal fractures** - It is formed by two lines drawn on a lateral foot X-ray and is not relevant to spinal deformities *Incorrect Option: Ferguson angle* - The **Ferguson angle**, also known as the lumbosacral angle, measures the angle of the sacral base relative to the horizontal - It describes the degree of **lordosis** and is not used to quantify scoliosis as depicted in the image *Incorrect Option: Baumann angle* - The **Baumann angle** is an important measurement used in pediatric orthopedics to assess the alignment of the **distal humerus** after a supracondylar fracture - It is irrelevant to spinal imaging and curvature assessment

Q: A 45-year-old man who is a chronic smoker came to the clinic with a complaint of cough. The physician examines the patient and takes a biopsy. The biopsy image is provided below. Which of the following cellular changes has happened to this patient?

Dysplasia. ***Dysplasia*** - Dysplasia refers to **abnormal growth** and architectural disorganization of cells, often seen in the context of chronic irritation, such as from smoking [1]. - This condition suggests a **precancerous state**, commonly observed in respiratory epithelium exposed to carcinogens [1,2]. *Metaplasia* - Metaplasia involves a **replacement of one type of tissue** with another type more suited to an adverse environment; however, it typically retains the normal architecture . - While chronic smoking can induce metaplasia (e.g., from columnar to squamous), it does not accurately describe the **cellular atypia** observed in this case . *Hyperplasia* - Hyperplasia is characterized by an **increase in the number of cells** in a tissue without atypical features, commonly due to increased demand or hormonal stimulation [1]. - In contrast, this patient exhibits features indicating **cellular abnormalities** rather than merely an increase in cell number. *CIN3* - CIN3 (Cervical Intraepithelial Neoplasia grade 3) is specific to cervical tissue and describes severe dysplasia in that context, not applicable to respiratory epithelium. - This classification indicates high-grade dysplasia but does not fit the **context of smoking-related cellular changes** in the lung epithelium. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Lung, p. 723. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Lung, p. 721. [3] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Cellular Responses to Stress and Toxic Insults: Adaptation, Injury, and Death, p. 49.

Q: In RDS in a child, which cells are found defective?

Type 2 pneumocytes. ***Type 2 pneumocytes*** - **Type 2 pneumocytes** are responsible for producing **surfactant**, which reduces surface tension in the alveoli and prevents their collapse [2], [3]. - In **Respiratory Distress Syndrome (RDS)**, especially in premature infants, these cells are immature or insufficient, leading to **surfactant deficiency** [1]. - This is the **primary cellular defect** in RDS, making it the correct answer [2]. *Bronchial epithelium* - The **bronchial epithelium** primarily lines the conducting airways and is involved in mucociliary clearance, not surfactant production. - Defects in this epithelium are associated with conditions like **bronchitis** or **asthma**, not the primary pathogenesis of RDS. *Type 1 pneumocytes* - **Type 1 pneumocytes** are thin, flat cells that form the majority of the alveolar surface (95%) and are crucial for gas exchange. - While they are affected by the damage in RDS, their primary defect is not the cause of the disease; the underlying problem is **surfactant deficiency** from Type 2 pneumocytes [2]. *Clara cells* - **Clara cells** (now called club cells) are non-ciliated secretory cells found in the bronchioles that produce Clara cell secretory protein (CCSP). - They play a role in detoxification and immune modulation but are **not responsible for surfactant production** or the pathogenesis of RDS. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Diseases of Infancy and Childhood, pp. 465-466. [2] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Respiratory Tract Disease, pp. 313-314. [3] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Diseases of Infancy and Childhood, p. 466.

Q: Cerebral blood flow is regulated by all of the following except:

Calcium ions. ***Calcium ions*** - While **calcium ions (Ca²⁺)** are mechanistically essential for vascular smooth muscle contraction and relaxation, they are **not considered a primary regulatory signal** for cerebral blood flow (CBF) in the same way as the other factors listed. - Ca²⁺ acts as an **intracellular second messenger** that mediates the effects of other regulatory factors (like PCO2, K⁺, and vasoactive substances), rather than being a direct extracellular regulatory signal itself. - The question refers to primary regulatory factors that directly modulate CBF, not the intracellular mechanisms by which vascular smooth muscle responds. *Blood pressure* - **Cerebral autoregulation** maintains relatively constant CBF despite changes in **mean arterial pressure (MAP)** between approximately 60-150 mmHg. - Blood pressure is a **key regulatory factor** - when MAP falls below or exceeds this range, CBF becomes pressure-dependent. - This protective mechanism prevents cerebral ischemia or hyperemia with systemic blood pressure fluctuations. *Arterial PCO2* - **Arterial partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PaCO2)** is one of the **most potent direct regulators** of CBF. - **Hypercapnia** (increased PaCO2) causes cerebral vasodilation and increased CBF (approximately 1-2 mL/100g/min increase per 1 mmHg rise in PaCO2). - **Hypocapnia** (decreased PaCO2) causes vasoconstriction and reduced CBF, utilized therapeutically in managing elevated intracranial pressure. *Potassium ions* - **Increased extracellular K⁺** in the perivascular space causes **direct vasodilation** of cerebral arterioles. - This mechanism is crucial for **neurovascular coupling** (functional hyperemia) - when neurons are active, they release K⁺, which dilates nearby vessels to increase local blood flow. - K⁺-mediated vasodilation helps match cerebral perfusion to metabolic demand during neuronal activity.

Q: Identify the radiological sign of Ischemic colitis from the image provided.

Thumbprinting sign of Ischemic colitis. ***Thumbprinting sign of Ischemic colitis*** - The image displays prominent **indentations (thumbprinting)** along the bowel wall, especially in the descending colon (indicated by arrows). These indentations are caused by **edema** and **hemorrhage** in the submucosal layer due to ischemia. - This characteristic appearance on a barium enema or CT scan is a classic radiological sign highly suggestive of **ischemic colitis**. *Diverticulitis* - Diverticulitis typically presents with **saccular outpouchings** (diverticula) that become inflamed, potentially showing wall thickening or **pericolonic fat stranding**. - This image does not show typical diverticula or signs of severe inflammation associated with diverticulitis, but rather diffuse mucosal changes. *Appendicitis* - Appendicitis is characterized by inflammation of the **vermiform appendix**, typically seen as a **dilated**, non-compressible appendix with surrounding fat stranding in the right lower quadrant. - The radiological findings in the image are of the colon, not the appendix, and are inconsistent with acute appendicitis. *None of the options* - The image presents a clear and characteristic radiological sign that points to a specific diagnosis, making this option incorrect. - The presence of **thumbprinting** is a well-established indicator for ischemic colitis.

Q: The Barium Swallow examination shows a filling defect in the esophagus. What is the most probable diagnosis?

Esophageal Carcinoma. ***Esophageal Carcinoma*** - A filling defect on a barium swallow study, especially with irregular borders and luminal narrowing, is highly suggestive of an **esophageal carcinoma**. - The image appears to show an **irregular, obstructing lesion** that displaces the barium column, characteristic of a mass. *Esophageal Ring* - An esophageal ring, such as a **Schatzki ring**, typically presents as a thin, circumferential narrowing of the distal esophagus, forming a smooth, shelf-like indentation, which is not seen here. - Esophageal rings usually cause **intermittent dysphagia** to solids but do not present as a large, irregular filling defect. *Esophageal Tear* - An esophageal tear (e.g., **Mallory-Weiss tear**) is a mucosal laceration that would present with **hematemesis** and would typically appear as a linear defect or streak on a barium swallow if visible, not a filling defect. - A tear is not usually associated with a persistent mass effect or irregular luminal obstruction seen in the image. *Achalasia Cardia* - **Achalasia** is characterized by the failure of the lower esophageal sphincter to relax and **absent peristalsis** in the esophageal body, leading to a classic "bird's beak" or "rat tail" appearance on barium swallow due to distal narrowing and proximal dilation. - While it causes luminal narrowing, it does not typically present as an irregular filling defect within the lumen, but rather as a smooth tapering of the distal esophagus.

Question 1

What is the appropriate color for containers used to dispose of chemical liquid biomedical waste?

Accepted Answer

Yellow container

Answer

White container

Answer

Blue container

Answer

Red container

Question 2

Which of the following is a technique/method based on behavioral sciences

Accepted Answer

Management by objectives

Answer

Network analysis

Answer

Systems analysis

Answer

Decision making

Question 3

Which of the following is not considered an absolute contraindication for the use of an Intra Uterine Contraceptive Device (IUD)?

Accepted Answer

Uterine malformation

Answer

Undiagnosed vaginal bleeding

Answer

Pregnancy

Answer

Pelvic inflammatory disease

Question 4

What is the angle shown in the image known as?

Accepted Answer

Cobb angle

Answer

Bohler angle

Answer

Ferguson angle

Answer

Baumann angle

Question 5

Which of the following factors play a major role in the initiation of thrombus formation?

Accepted Answer

Endothelial injury

Answer

Vasoconstriction

Answer

Coagulation cascade activation

Answer

Platelets activation

Question 6

A 45-year-old man who is a chronic smoker came to the clinic with a complaint of cough. The physician examines the patient and takes a biopsy. The biopsy image is provided below. Which of the following cellular changes has happened to this patient?

Accepted Answer

Dysplasia

Answer

Hyperplasia

Answer

Metaplasia

Answer

CIN3

Question 7

In RDS in a child, which cells are found defective?

Accepted Answer

Type 2 pneumocytes

Answer

Bronchial epithelium

Answer

Type 1 pneumocytes

Answer

Clara cells

Question 8

Cerebral blood flow is regulated by all of the following except:

Accepted Answer

Calcium ions

Answer

Blood pressure

Answer

Arterial PCO2

Answer

Potassium ions

Question 9

Identify the radiological sign of Ischemic colitis from the image provided.

Accepted Answer

Thumbprinting sign of Ischemic colitis

Answer

Diverticulitis

Answer

Appendicitis

Answer

None of the options

Question 10

The Barium Swallow examination shows a filling defect in the esophagus. What is the most probable diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Esophageal Carcinoma

Answer

Esophageal Ring

Answer

Esophageal Tear

Answer

Achalasia Cardia

NEET-PG 2020

Community Medicine

Obstetrics and Gynecology

Orthopaedics

Pathology

Physiology

Radiology