NEET-PG 2020 - Internal Medicine Practice Questions

Q: An 11-year-old boy presented with a cough for 15 days. On examination, he was found to have cervical lymphadenopathy. Lymph node biopsy showed the following findings. What could be the diagnosis?

Tuberculosis. ***Tuberculosis*** - The image likely displays **granulomatous inflammation** with **caseous necrosis**, which is highly characteristic of **tuberculosis**, especially in someone presenting with a persistent cough and lymphadenopathy. - The presence of **cervical lymphadenopathy** along with a **cough** for 15 days in an 11-year-old boy points towards extrapulmonary tuberculosis or primary tuberculosis infection affecting the mediastinal lymph nodes with cervical involvement. *Leprosy* - While leprosy also causes granulomas, it typically manifests as skin lesions and nerve involvement, and lymphadenopathy is less common or specific as the primary initial presentation. - The granulomas in leprosy are often **epithelioid** with **foamy histiocytes** and numerous acid-fast bacilli, which are not explicitly described or obvious in the provided context for a definitive diagnosis without special stains. *Sarcoidosis* - Sarcoidosis involves **non-caseating granulomas**, meaning there is no central necrosis, which is a key differentiating feature from the caseating necrosis often seen in tuberculosis. - Although sarcoidosis can cause lymphadenopathy and cough, the microscopic features in the image, particularly if showing necrosis, would argue against sarcoidosis. *Syphilis* - Syphilis can cause lymphadenopathy (especially in secondary syphilis), but the characteristic histological finding is usually a **plasma cell-rich infiltrate** with **endarteritis obliterans**, not typically prominent granulomas with caseous necrosis. - Clinical presentation with cough and chronic lymphadenopathy in an 11-year-old would also make syphilis a less likely primary consideration without other suggestive signs.

Q: Esophageal manometry was performed - it revealed panesophageal pressurization with distal contractile integrity as >450mm Hg pressure in the body. What will be the diagnosis?

Type 3 achalasia. The diagnosis is Type 3 achalasia. This condition is characterized by panesophageal pressurization, indicating diffuse, simultaneous contractions throughout the esophagus. The high distal contractile integrity (>450 mmHg pressure) further supports Type 3 achalasia, which involves significant spastic contractions. In contrast, while high-resolution manometry allows for the accurate classification of these motility abnormalities [1], other types present differently. Type 1 achalasia (classic achalasia) is marked by failed esophageal peristalsis and absent or minimal esophageal pressurization [1]. The primary characteristic is incomplete or absent lower esophageal sphincter (LES) relaxation, not hypercontractility [1]. Type 2 achalasia is identified by esophageal panesophageal pressurization (simultaneous contractions), but with normal to high contractile pressures, not the extremely high values seen here. Jackhammer esophagus involves hypercontractility (distal contractile integral >8000 mmHg·cm·s) and is characterized by rapid, repetitive, and fragmented contractions, rather than the diffuse panesophageal pressurization and spasticity typical of Type 3 achalasia [2].

Q: Which is the most common pancreatic endocrine neoplasm?

Insulinoma. ***Insulinoma*** - It is the **most common pancreatic endocrine neoplasm**, characterized by excessive insulin production leading to hypoglycemia. - Most patients present with **symptoms of hypoglycemia**, such as sweating, confusion, and palpitations due to overproduction of insulin [1]. *Gastrinoma* - Generally implicated in **Zollinger-Ellison syndrome**, it causes excessive gastric acid secretion, leading to severe ulcers but is less common than insulinoma. - Associated with **diarrhea and abdominal pain**, not typically causing hypoglycemia [1]. *Glucagonoma* - Rarely seen, it causes **hyperglycemia** and characteristic **necrotizing migratory erythema**, rather than hypoglycemic episodes. - Comprises a minority of pancreatic endocrine tumors and is not the most common type. *VIPoma* - Produces **vasoactive intestinal peptide**, leading to profuse watery diarrhea and severe electrolyte imbalance. - It is uncommon compared to insulinoma and primarily causes gastrointestinal symptoms rather than hypoglycemia.

Q: Screening is not useful in which carcinoma

Testicular carcinoma. Testicular carcinoma - **Testicular cancer** typically presents as a painless mass, and **self-examination** is often emphasized for early detection rather than formal screening programs due to low incidence and variable benefits. - While early detection is important, population-wide screening for testicular cancer is **not recommended** due to its rarity and lack of evidence for improved outcomes compared to opportunistic detection. *Carcinoma prostate* - **Prostate cancer screening** using **PSA (prostate-specific antigen)** testing and digital rectal examinations is routinely performed, though its benefits and risks are debated [1]. - Early detection aims to identify potentially aggressive cancers, but also leads to **overdiagnosis and overtreatment** of indolent lesions [1]. *Carcinoma colon* - **Colorectal cancer screening** is highly effective and widely recommended through methods like **colonoscopy**, fecal occult blood testing, and sigmoisingoscopy. - Screening aims to detect **polyps** before they become cancerous or find cancer at an early, treatable stage, significantly reducing mortality. *Carcinoma breast* - **Breast cancer screening** using **mammography** is a well-established and highly effective method for early detection in women. - Early detection allows for timely treatment, significantly improving prognosis and reducing breast cancer mortality.

Q: Which of the following is commonly seen in Pituitary apoplexy?

Headache. ***Headache*** - **Severe headache** is the most common symptom of pituitary apoplexy, resulting from the sudden expansion of a pituitary mass due to hemorrhage or infarction [1]. - The rapid increase in pressure within the sella turcica, especially on the **dura mater**, causes intense pain. *Hypertension* - While stress can elevate blood pressure, **hypertension** is not a characteristic or direct symptom of acute pituitary apoplexy itself. - Instead, the condition often leads to **adrenal insufficiency**, which is associated with hypotension [1]. *Hypotension* - **Hypotension** is a common and serious manifestation of pituitary apoplexy, often due to acute **adrenal insufficiency** caused by the destruction of ACTH-producing cells [1]. - Reduced ACTH leads to decreased cortisol production, impairing vascular tone and fluid balance. *Vomiting* - **Vomiting** is a common symptom in pituitary apoplexy, often accompanying the severe headache. - It results from the increased **intracranial pressure** and irritation of pathways in the brainstem.

Q: A Patient falls down often with behavioral change and enuresis. What is the condition associated with him?

Normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH). ***Normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH)*** - NPH is characterized by the classic triad of symptoms: **gait disturbance** (leading to falls), **dementia/behavioral changes**, and **urinary incontinence** (enuresis) [1]. - These symptoms arise from the accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in the brain's ventricles without a corresponding increase in intracranial pressure [2]. *Parkinson's disease (PD)* - While PD causes **gait instability** and falls, its primary symptoms include **bradykinesia**, **rigidity**, and **resting tremor**, which are not mentioned. - Behavioral changes can occur later in the disease, but **enuresis** is not a hallmark symptom. *Alzheimer's disease (AD)* - AD primarily presents with **progressive memory loss** and cognitive decline, not gait disturbances or enuresis as early or prominent features. - Falls usually occur much later due to advanced cognitive impairment and not as an initial triad component. *Frontotemporal dementia (FTD)* - FTD is characterized by early and prominent **behavioral and personality changes** or language difficulties. - While falls can occur due to executive dysfunction, **gait disturbance** and **enuresis** as part of a triad are not typical presenting features.

Q: Which of the following criteria is used to assess the prognosis of liver conditions?

Child-Pugh score. ***Child-Pugh score*** - The **Child-Pugh score** is a widely used scoring system to assess the **prognosis of chronic liver disease**, primarily cirrhosis. - It categorizes patients into classes A, B, or C based on five clinical measures of liver function: **bilirubin**, **albumin**, **INR**, **ascites**, and **hepatic encephalopathy**. *Milan criteria* - The **Milan criteria** are used to select patients with **hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC)** for **liver transplantation**. - They are not a general prognostic tool for all liver conditions, but rather specific to HCC and transplant eligibility. *MELD score* - The **Model for End-Stage Liver Disease (MELD) score** is used to assess the **severity of chronic liver disease** and predict short-term survival. - It is primarily used for **prioritizing patients for liver transplantation**, not for general prognosis in all liver conditions, and includes bilirubin, creatinine, and INR. *Alvarado score* - The **Alvarado score** is a clinical scoring system used to assess the **likelihood of acute appendicitis**. - It is entirely unrelated to liver conditions and is not used for assessing liver prognosis.

Q: Renal tubular acidosis with ABG value pH = 7.24 PO2=80; PaCO2= 36 Na = 131; HCO3 = 14 Cl= 90; BE = -13 Glucose = 135 the above ABG picture suggests –

Metabolic acidosis. The ABG shows a pH of 7.24, indicating **acidemia** [1]. The HCO3 is 14 mEq/L, which is significantly **low**, and the base excess (BE) is -13 [1]. The PaCO2 of 36 mmHg is within the normal range, indicating no significant primary respiratory derangement [2]. The overall picture is consistent with an uncompensated or partially compensated **metabolic acidosis** [1][2]. ***Metabolic acidosis*** - The **low pH (acidemia)**, **low bicarbonate (HCO3)**, and **negative base excess (BE)** are direct indicators of metabolic acidosis [1]. - The **PaCO2 within normal limits** or slightly decreased suggests either no respiratory compensation or insufficient compensation for the metabolic derangement [1][2]. *Respiratory acidosis* - This would present with a **low pH** and an **elevated PaCO2** as the primary defect, which is not seen here (PaCO2 is normal) [1]. - Bicarbonate would typically be normal or elevated if compensated, not significantly decreased. *Respiratory alkalosis* - This would be characterized by an **elevated pH** and a **low PaCO2**, which is the opposite of the findings in this ABG [1]. - HCO3 would be normal or low if compensated. *Metabolic alkalosis* - This would present with an **elevated pH** and an **elevated HCO3**, which contradicts the given ABG values (low pH and low HCO3) [2].

Q: The patient is presenting with the deformity of the finger as shown. The PIP is involved but the DIP is spared

Rheumatoid arthritis. ***Rheumatoid arthritis*** - The image shows a **Boutonniere deformity**, characterized by **flexion of the PIP joint** and hyperextension of the DIP joint, which is classic for rheumatoid arthritis. - **Rheumatoid arthritis** typically affects the small joints of the hands and feet, particularly the **PIP joints and MCP joints**, sparing the DIP joints. *Osteoarthritis* - Osteoarthritis commonly involves the **DIP joints (Heberden's nodes)** and **PIP joints (Bouchard's nodes)**, but the depicted deformity (Boutonniere) is not typical. - It is primarily a degenerative joint disease, not inflammatory, and tends to spare the MCP joints until very late in the disease. *Psoriatic Arthritis* - Psoriatic arthritis often involves the **DIP joints and causes dactylitis (sausage digits)**, which is not clearly depicted, although Boutonniere can occur. - The key differentiator is usually the presence of **psoriasis skin lesions or nail changes**, which are not mentioned or visible in the image. *Ankylosing spondylitis* - This condition primarily affects the **axial skeleton**, particularly the **sacroiliac joints** and spine, leading to stiffness and pain. - While peripheral joint involvement can occur, it is generally not characterized by specific hand deformities like Boutonniere deformity.

Question 1

An 11-year-old boy presented with a cough for 15 days. On examination, he was found to have cervical lymphadenopathy. Lymph node biopsy showed the following findings. What could be the diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Tuberculosis

Answer

Leprosy

Answer

Sarcoidosis

Answer

Syphilis

Question 2

Esophageal manometry was performed - it revealed panesophageal pressurization with distal contractile integrity as >450mm Hg pressure in the body. What will be the diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Type 3 achalasia

Answer

Type 2 achalasia

Answer

Jackhammer esophagus

Answer

Type 1 achalasia (classic achalasia)

Question 3

Which is the most common pancreatic endocrine neoplasm?

Accepted Answer

Insulinoma

Answer

Gastrinoma

Answer

VIPoma

Answer

Glucagonoma

Question 4

The differentiating feature between IBS and organic GI disease is:

Accepted Answer

Presence of inflammation indicated by elevated stool calprotectin

Answer

Pain abdomen

Answer

Mucus in stools

Answer

Diarrhea

Question 5

Screening is not useful in which carcinoma

Accepted Answer

Testicular carcinoma

Answer

Carcinoma prostate

Answer

Carcinoma colon

Answer

Carcinoma breast

Question 6

Which of the following is commonly seen in Pituitary apoplexy?

Accepted Answer

Headache

Answer

Hypertension

Answer

Hypotension

Answer

Vomiting

Question 7

A Patient falls down often with behavioral change and enuresis. What is the condition associated with him?

Accepted Answer

Normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH)

Answer

Parkinson's disease (PD)

Answer

Alzheimer's disease (AD)

Answer

Frontotemporal dementia (FTD)

Question 8

Which of the following criteria is used to assess the prognosis of liver conditions?

Accepted Answer

Child-Pugh score

Answer

Milan criteria

Answer

MELD score

Answer

Alvarado score

Question 9

Renal tubular acidosis with ABG value pH = 7.24 PO2=80; PaCO2= 36 Na = 131; HCO3 = 14 Cl= 90; BE = -13 Glucose = 135 the above ABG picture suggests –

Accepted Answer

Metabolic acidosis

Answer

Respiratory alkalosis

Answer

Metabolic alkalosis

Answer

Respiratory acidosis

Question 10

The patient is presenting with the deformity of the finger as shown. The PIP is involved but the DIP is spared

Accepted Answer

Rheumatoid arthritis

Answer

Osteoarthritis

Answer

Psoriatic Arthritis

Answer

Ankylosing spondylitis

NEET-PG 2020 — Internal Medicine