NEET-PG 2015 - Surgery Practice Questions

Q: Which type of surgical suture is known to cause the most tissue reaction?

Silk. ***Silk*** - Silk is a **natural, braided, non-absorbable suture** that is known to elicit a significant **inflammatory reaction** due to its natural protein composition and braided structure. - While it was historically used for its good handling properties, its high tissue reactivity makes it less ideal for situations where minimal scarring or inflammation is desired. - **Silk causes the most tissue reaction** among commonly used sutures. *Plain Catgut* - Plain catgut is a **natural, absorbable suture** derived from purified collagen of animal intestines, causing a moderate to high tissue reaction. - However, its absorption by enzymatic hydrolysis is relatively rapid, limiting the duration of the inflammatory response compared to non-absorbable natural materials like silk. *Polydiaxonone* - Polydiaxonone (PDS) is a **synthetic, monofilament, absorbable suture** known for causing a relatively **low tissue reaction**. - Its slow absorption profile and monofilament structure contribute to its minimal inflammatory response, making it suitable for tissues requiring prolonged support. *Chromic Catgut* - Chromic catgut is a treated form of plain catgut that has been coated with chromium salts, which prolong its absorption time and reduce its tissue reactivity compared to plain catgut. - Although it is still a natural, absorbable suture, its tissue reaction is **less than both plain catgut and silk**, but greater than synthetic monofilament sutures like PDS.

Q: What type of respiratory failure is most commonly observed in post-operative patients?

Hypoxemic respiratory failure. ***Hypoxemic respiratory failure*** - **Hypoxemic respiratory failure** (Type I) is characterized by a **PaO2 less than 60 mmHg** with a normal or low PaCO2, often due to **V/Q mismatch** and **shunt**. - Post-operative patients frequently develop **atelectasis**, **pneumonia**, or **pulmonary edema**, leading to impaired gas exchange and reduced oxygenation. - This is the **most commonly observed type** in the immediate post-operative period. *Hypercapnic respiratory failure* - **Hypercapnic respiratory failure** (Type II) is primarily due to **alveolar hypoventilation**, resulting in a **PaCO2 greater than 50 mmHg**. - While it can occur post-operatively, it is less common than hypoxemic failure and is typically seen with significant **sedation**, **neuromuscular blockade**, or severe **obstructive lung disease**. *Mixed respiratory failure* - **Mixed respiratory failure** involves both **hypoxemia** and **hypercapnia**, indicating severe impairment in both oxygenation and ventilation. - Although it can occur in severe post-operative complications, it is not the *most commonly observed initial presentation* compared to isolated hypoxemia. *Perioperative respiratory failure* - **Perioperative respiratory failure** (Type III) occurs specifically in the surgical setting and involves atelectasis from changes in chest wall mechanics. - While this occurs in the post-operative context, the term is less commonly used, and the **underlying mechanism is primarily hypoxemic** in nature.

Q: Where does spontaneous esophageal rupture (Boerhaave syndrome) most commonly occur?

Above the diaphragmatic aperture. ***Above the diaphragmatic aperture*** - Boerhaave syndrome, or spontaneous esophageal rupture, most commonly occurs in the **distal esophagus**, just above the diaphragmatic aperture. - This region is particularly susceptible due to increased **intraluminal pressure** during forceful vomiting, combined with a lack of muscular support and a thinner esophageal wall. - The rupture typically occurs in the **left posterolateral wall** of the lower third of the esophagus, approximately **2-5 cm above the gastroesophageal junction**. *Below the diaphragmatic aperture* - Ruptures below the diaphragmatic aperture are less common in Boerhaave syndrome, as the **lower esophageal sphincter** and surrounding diaphragmatic crura provide more support. - While other forms of esophageal injury can occur here, a spontaneous rupture due to vomiting is less typical in this location. *Pharyngoesophageal junction* - Ruptures at the pharyngoesophageal junction are known as **Zenker's diverticulum ruptures** or other types of perforation, typically not Boerhaave syndrome. - This area is prone to tears from instrumentation or foreign bodies but not usually from the extreme pressure of forceful vomiting (which affects the distal esophagus more). *At the crossing of the arch of aorta* - The mid-esophagus at the level of the aortic arch is not a common site for Boerhaave syndrome. - Although the esophagus is constricted here, the primary stress during forceful vomiting is concentrated in the **distal esophagus**.

Q: What is the treatment of choice in desmoid tumors?

Wide excision. ***Wide excision*** - For **desmoid tumors**, **complete surgical resection with clear margins** is the primary treatment of choice due to their infiltrative nature and high recurrence rates. - This approach aims to minimize local recurrence and prevent tumor progression, which can impact adjacent structures. *Irradiation* - **Radiation therapy** is typically reserved as an **adjuvant** treatment after surgery or for unresectable tumors, not as a primary standalone treatment. - While it can help reduce recurrence rates, it carries risks of **secondary malignancies** and local tissue damage. *Local excision* - **Local excision** alone is insufficient for desmoid tumors due to their **infiltrative growth pattern** and high propensity for **local recurrence** if positive margins remain. - It often leads to incomplete removal, necessitating further intervention and increasing the risk of tumor progression. *Local excision following radiation* - Combining local excision with initial radiation is not the preferred sequence; **wide surgical excision** is typically performed first. - Radiation might be considered preoperatively in specific cases to **reduce tumor size** or postoperatively for **positive margins**, but starting with local excision after initial radiation is not the standard primary management.

Q: Which of the following is resected in Whipple's operation, except?

Neck of pancreas. ***Neck of pancreas*** - In a **Whipple procedure** (pancreaticoduodenectomy), the **neck of the pancreas** is the site of transection (division), not resection. - The pancreas is divided at the neck, and the remaining **body and tail** are preserved and anastomosed to the jejunum for pancreatic drainage. *Duodenum* - The **entire duodenum** is resected during a Whipple operation as it shares intimate anatomical relations with the pancreatic head. - Complete duodenal removal is necessary to achieve adequate **oncological margins** and remove all associated lymphatic drainage. *Head of pancreas* - The **head of the pancreas** is the primary structure resected in a Whipple procedure. - This resection is typically performed for **pancreatic adenocarcinoma** or **periampullary tumors** requiring en bloc removal. *Common bile duct* - The **distal common bile duct** is resected as part of the specimen to ensure complete tumor excision. - The remaining **proximal bile duct** is reconstructed via **hepaticojejunostomy** to restore biliary drainage.

Q: CA Breast may locally spread to all of the following muscles except

Latissimus Dorsi. ***Latissimus Dorsi*** - The **latissimus dorsi** muscle is located on the posterior aspect of the trunk and arm, significantly deeper and further away from the breast tissue compared to other surrounding muscles. - Direct local invasion of breast cancer to the latissimus dorsi is rare and typically requires extensive tumor growth or metastasis to more distant sites before affecting this muscle. *Pectoralis Minor* - The **pectoralis minor** muscle lies directly beneath the pectoralis major and is in close proximity to the deeper aspects of the breast tissue. - Tumors that invade the **deep fascia** of the breast can directly extend into this muscle. *Serratus Anterior* - The **serratus anterior** muscle is located on the lateral wall of the thorax, forming part of the chest wall beneath the breast. - **Aggressive breast cancers**, particularly those in the outer quadrants, can invade the fascial planes covering this muscle. *Pectoralis Major* - The **pectoralis major** forms the anterior wall of the axilla and lies directly beneath the majority of the breast tissue. - It is one of the most common muscles to be affected by **direct local invasion** from breast cancer due to its anatomical proximity.

Q: A 45-year-old female underwent a modified radical mastectomy with axillary clearance for breast cancer. Post-surgery, she is unable to lift her arm above her head. Which nerve is most likely to be injured?

Long thoracic nerve of Bell. ***Long thoracic nerve of Bell*** - Injury to the **long thoracic nerve** (nerve to the serratus anterior) leads to **paralysis of the serratus anterior muscle**. - This muscle is crucial for **upward rotation and protraction of the scapula**, which is essential for arm elevation above the head and preventing **'winging' of the scapula**. *Intercostobrachial nerve* - Injury to the **intercostobrachial nerve** typically causes **sensory loss** or numbness in the medial upper arm. - It does not primarily affect motor function or the ability to lift the arm. *Nerve to latissimus Dorsi* - The **thoracodorsal nerve** innervates the **latissimus dorsi muscle**, which is involved in adduction, extension, and internal rotation of the arm. - Injury to this nerve would impair these movements but not directly prevent arm elevation above the head. *Lateral Pectoral nerve* - The **lateral pectoral nerve** supplies the **pectoralis major muscle**, primarily its clavicular head. - Injury would weaken adduction and flexion of the arm, but the inability to lift the arm above the head strongly points to serratus anterior dysfunction.

Q: A 22 year old woman comes with a non progressive mass in the left breast since 6 months. There are no associated symptoms. Examination shows a mobile mass not attached to the overlying skin or underlying tissue. The possible diagnosis is

Fibroadenoma. ***Fibroadenoma*** - This is the most common benign breast tumor in young women, typically presenting as a **mobile, non-tender, firm mass** with no attachment to surrounding tissues. - The history of a **non-progressive mass** over six months in a 22-year-old woman is highly characteristic of a fibroadenoma. *Cystasarcoma Phylloides* - While it can present as a mobile mass, phyllodes tumors tend to grow **rapidly** and can reach a large size, which contradicts the "non-progressive" nature of the mass described. - Phyllodes tumors often have a **leaf-like architectural pattern** histologically and can be benign, borderline, or malignant. *Scirrhous Carcinoma* - This is a type of invasive ductal carcinoma that typically presents as a **hard, irregular, fixed mass** that is often attached to the skin or underlying tissue, unlike the mobile mass described here. - It is common in older women and often associated with **skin dimpling** or nipple retraction. *Fibroadenosis* - This refers to a group of benign breast changes, often presenting with generalized **lumpiness, pain, or tenderness** that fluctuates with the menstrual cycle, rather than a discrete, solitary mass. - It usually presents as **multiple, diffuse nodules** rather than a single, well-defined mass.

Q: RPLND and Chemotherapy may be used in management of?

Non-seminomatous germ cell tumors of the testis. ***Non-seminomatous germ cell tumors of the testis*** - **Retroperitoneal lymph node dissection (RPLND)** and **chemotherapy** are key components in the management of non-seminomatous germ cell tumors (NSGCTs), especially for metastatic disease or after initial orchidectomy. - The combination therapy addresses both local nodal involvement (RPLND) and widespread micrometastases (chemotherapy), which are common in NSGCTs. *Non-germ cell tumors* - This is a broad category, and while some non-germ cell testicular tumors may require surgery or chemotherapy, **RPLND** is not a standard part of their management in the same way it is for germ cell tumors. - The specific treatment depends on the tumor type (e.g., Leydig cell tumor, Sertoli cell tumor), stage, and histology, and often involves less aggressive approaches. *Seminomatous germ cell tumors* - **Seminomas** are highly radiosensitive and often respond well to **radiation therapy**, particularly for localized disease or retroperitoneal nodal involvement. - While chemotherapy is used for metastatic seminoma, **RPLND** is generally not indicated for seminomas due to their radiosensitivity and different metastatic patterns compared to NSGCTs. *Lymphoma of the testis* - Testicular lymphoma is a type of **non-Hodgkin lymphoma** and is primarily managed with systemic **chemotherapy** (e.g., R-CHOP) and sometimes radiation therapy. - **RPLND** is not a standard treatment modality for testicular lymphoma, as it is a systemic disease requiring systemic treatment, not local surgical excision of retroperitoneal nodes.

Q: The Grayhack shunt is established between which of the following?

Corpora cavernosa and saphenous vein. ***Corpora cavernosa and saphenous vein*** - The **Grayhack shunt** is a proximal **cavernosal-venous shunt** that connects the corpus cavernosum to the **great saphenous vein**. - This procedure surgically manages **refractory priapism** by diverting blood away from the trapped penile cavernosal spaces into the systemic venous circulation. - It is performed when distal and proximal corporeal shunts have failed. *Corpora cavernosa and dorsal vein* - This describes the **Barry shunt**, which connects the corpus cavernosum to the **deep dorsal vein**. - The Al-Ghorab shunt (sometimes confused) is actually a **distal corporo-glanular shunt** involving open excision of glans tissue — not a dorsal vein shunt. *Corpora cavernosa and glans* - This describes **distal cavernosal-glanular shunts** such as the **Winter shunt** (percutaneous needle) or **Ebbehoj shunt** (scalpel incision), which create a communication between the corpus cavernosum and the glans penis. - These are **first-line** surgical options for priapism but are distinct from the proximal Grayhack shunt. *Corpora cavernosa and corpora spongiosa* - This describes the **Quackels shunt**, a **proximal cavernosal-spongiosal shunt** connecting the corpora cavernosa to the corpus spongiosum. - Also used for refractory priapism, but anatomically and surgically distinct from the Grayhack (cavernosal-venous) shunt.

Question 1

Which type of surgical suture is known to cause the most tissue reaction?

Accepted Answer

Silk

Answer

Plain Catgut

Answer

Polydiaxonone

Answer

Chromic catgut

Question 2

What type of respiratory failure is most commonly observed in post-operative patients?

Accepted Answer

Hypoxemic respiratory failure

Answer

Hypercapnic respiratory failure

Answer

Mixed respiratory failure

Answer

Perioperative respiratory failure

Question 3

Where does spontaneous esophageal rupture (Boerhaave syndrome) most commonly occur?

Accepted Answer

Above the diaphragmatic aperture

Answer

Below the diaphragmatic aperture

Answer

Pharyngoesophageal junction

Answer

At the crossing of the arch of aorta

Question 4

What is the treatment of choice in desmoid tumors?

Accepted Answer

Wide excision

Answer

Irradiation

Answer

Local excision

Answer

Local excision following radiation

Question 5

Which of the following is resected in Whipple's operation, except?

Accepted Answer

Neck of pancreas

Answer

Duodenum

Answer

Head of pancreas

Answer

Common bile duct

Question 6

CA Breast may locally spread to all of the following muscles except

Accepted Answer

Latissimus Dorsi

Answer

Pectoralis Minor

Answer

Serratus Anterior

Answer

Pectoralis Major

Question 7

A 45-year-old female underwent a modified radical mastectomy with axillary clearance for breast cancer. Post-surgery, she is unable to lift her arm above her head. Which nerve is most likely to be injured?

Accepted Answer

Long thoracic nerve of Bell

Answer

Intercostobrachial nerve

Answer

Nerve to latissimus Dorsi

Answer

Lateral Pectoral nerve

Question 8

A 22 year old woman comes with a non progressive mass in the left breast since 6 months. There are no associated symptoms. Examination shows a mobile mass not attached to the overlying skin or underlying tissue. The possible diagnosis is

Accepted Answer

Fibroadenoma

Answer

Cystasarcoma Phylloides

Answer

Scirrhous Carcinoma

Answer

Fibroadenosis

Question 9

RPLND and Chemotherapy may be used in management of?

Accepted Answer

Non-seminomatous germ cell tumors of the testis

Answer

Non-germ cell tumors

Answer

Seminomatous germ cell tumors

Answer

Lymphoma of the testis

Question 10

The Grayhack shunt is established between which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Corpora cavernosa and saphenous vein

Answer

Corpora cavernosa and dorsal vein

Answer

Corpora cavernosa and glans

Answer

Corpora cavernosa and corpora spongiosa

NEET-PG 2015 — Surgery