NEET-PG 2015 - Surgery Practice Questions

Q: ESWL is contraindicated in which of the following stones -

Cystine stones. ***Cysteine stones*** - **Cystine stones** are very dense and hard, making them resistant to fragmentation by the shock waves generated during **Extracorporeal Shock Wave Lithotripsy (ESWL)**. - Due to their resistance to fragmentation, ESWL is generally ineffective for cystine stones, and other treatments like **ureteroscopy** or **percutaneous nephrolithotomy (PCNL)** are often preferred. *Oxalate Stones* - **Calcium oxalate stones** are generally **amenable to ESWL** as they are effectively fragmented by shock waves. - They are the **most common type of kidney stone** and often respond well to lithotripsy. *Urate stones* - **Uric acid stones** are typically **radiolucent** but are often **well-fragmented by ESWL**. - Their non-calcium composition does not hinder the effectiveness of shock waves. *Phosphate stones* - **Struvite (magnesium ammonium phosphate) stones** and **calcium phosphate stones** generally respond well to ESWL. - While sometimes large and branched (**staghorn calculi**), the individual components are susceptible to shock wave fragmentation, though multiple sessions or adjunctive therapies might be needed.

Q: Surgery for undescended testis is recommended at what age?

12 months. ***12 months*** - **Orchiopexy** for undescended testes is generally recommended around **12 months of age** to optimize fertility and reduce cancer risk. - This timing is within the ideal surgical window of **6-18 months**, balancing the allowance for potential spontaneous descent (which rarely occurs after 6 months) with minimizing germ cell damage. - Most pediatric surgeons prefer operating around **12 months** as it provides optimal outcomes. *6 months* - While **6 months is within the acceptable surgical window** (6-18 months), most surgeons prefer waiting closer to 12 months. - Operating at 6 months is not incorrect, but waiting a few more months allows for logistical planning and ensures any late spontaneous descent has occurred. - The key is to operate **before 18 months** to preserve fertility potential. *24 months* - Delaying surgery until 24 months (2 years) **exceeds the recommended window** and increases the risk of germ cell damage and potential future infertility. - While still beneficial compared to no surgery, the ideal timing for preserving fertility and minimizing malignancy risk has passed. *36 months* - Surgery at 36 months (3 years) is considered a **significant delay** and carries higher risks for long-term complications, including reduced fertility potential and increased risk of testicular cancer. - The benefits of early intervention are largely diminished by this age, though orchiopexy is still indicated to reduce cancer risk and for cosmetic/psychological reasons.

Q: Which of the following urethral anomalies is the most common?

Hypospadias. ***Hypospadias*** - **Hypospadias** is the most common urethral anomaly, occurring when the **urethral opening** is located on the underside of the penis rather than at the tip. - Its prevalence ranges from approximately **1 in 150 to 1 in 300 live male births**, making it significantly more frequent than other urethral malformations. *Pinhole meatus* - A **pinhole meatus** refers to an abnormally small urethral opening. - While it can be a component or consequence of other anomalies, it is **less common as a standalone finding** compared to hypospadias. *Epispadias* - **Epispadias** is a rare anomaly where the urethra opens on the **dorsal (top) aspect** of the penis. - Its incidence is much lower than hypospadias, estimated at **1 in 100,000 to 1 in 500,000 live births**. *Stricture of the urethra* - A **urethral stricture** is a narrowing of the urethra, often due to **scar tissue** from inflammation, trauma, or infection. - Although it can present at any age, it is more commonly an **acquired condition** rather than a congenital anomaly like hypospadias or epispadias.

Q: What is the optimal timing for administering antibiotic prophylaxis before surgery?

30-60 minutes before incision. ***30-60 minutes before incision*** - This is the **optimal timing** recommended by WHO, CDC, and major surgical guidelines for most commonly used prophylactic antibiotics (cefazolin, cefuroxime). - Ensures **peak tissue and serum concentrations** are achieved at the time of incision, providing maximum protection against surgical site infections. - Based on **pharmacokinetic principles**: the antibiotic must be present at bactericidal concentrations in tissues when bacterial contamination occurs. - Studies show this timing significantly reduces surgical site infection rates compared to other timings. *Immediately before induction of anesthesia* - While acceptable in some protocols, this may be too early if there is a delay between induction and incision. - Could result in **declining antibiotic levels** by the time the incision is made, especially for antibiotics with shorter half-lives. *2-3 hours before surgery* - This is **too early** for most antibiotics. - Tissue levels may have already **declined below therapeutic concentrations** by the time of incision. - Does not provide adequate protection during the critical period of bacterial contamination. *Immediately after surgery* - This is **treatment, not prophylaxis**. - Offers **no preventive benefit** against intraoperative contamination. - By this time, bacteria introduced during surgery have already adhered to tissues and begun forming biofilms.

Q: A 22 year old woman comes with a non progressive mass in the left breast since 6 months. There are no associated symptoms. Examination shows a mobile mass not attached to the overlying skin or underlying tissue. The possible diagnosis is

Fibroadenoma. ***Fibroadenoma*** - This is the most common benign breast tumor in young women, typically presenting as a **mobile, non-tender, firm mass** with no attachment to surrounding tissues. - The history of a **non-progressive mass** over six months in a 22-year-old woman is highly characteristic of a fibroadenoma. *Cystasarcoma Phylloides* - While it can present as a mobile mass, phyllodes tumors tend to grow **rapidly** and can reach a large size, which contradicts the "non-progressive" nature of the mass described. - Phyllodes tumors often have a **leaf-like architectural pattern** histologically and can be benign, borderline, or malignant. *Scirrhous Carcinoma* - This is a type of invasive ductal carcinoma that typically presents as a **hard, irregular, fixed mass** that is often attached to the skin or underlying tissue, unlike the mobile mass described here. - It is common in older women and often associated with **skin dimpling** or nipple retraction. *Fibroadenosis* - This refers to a group of benign breast changes, often presenting with generalized **lumpiness, pain, or tenderness** that fluctuates with the menstrual cycle, rather than a discrete, solitary mass. - It usually presents as **multiple, diffuse nodules** rather than a single, well-defined mass.

Q: What type of respiratory failure is most commonly observed in post-operative patients?

Hypoxemic respiratory failure. ***Hypoxemic respiratory failure*** - **Hypoxemic respiratory failure** (Type I) is characterized by a **PaO2 less than 60 mmHg** with a normal or low PaCO2, often due to **V/Q mismatch** and **shunt**. - Post-operative patients frequently develop **atelectasis**, **pneumonia**, or **pulmonary edema**, leading to impaired gas exchange and reduced oxygenation. - This is the **most commonly observed type** in the immediate post-operative period. *Hypercapnic respiratory failure* - **Hypercapnic respiratory failure** (Type II) is primarily due to **alveolar hypoventilation**, resulting in a **PaCO2 greater than 50 mmHg**. - While it can occur post-operatively, it is less common than hypoxemic failure and is typically seen with significant **sedation**, **neuromuscular blockade**, or severe **obstructive lung disease**. *Mixed respiratory failure* - **Mixed respiratory failure** involves both **hypoxemia** and **hypercapnia**, indicating severe impairment in both oxygenation and ventilation. - Although it can occur in severe post-operative complications, it is not the *most commonly observed initial presentation* compared to isolated hypoxemia. *Perioperative respiratory failure* - **Perioperative respiratory failure** (Type III) occurs specifically in the surgical setting and involves atelectasis from changes in chest wall mechanics. - While this occurs in the post-operative context, the term is less commonly used, and the **underlying mechanism is primarily hypoxemic** in nature.

Q: Which of the following statements about Branchial cysts is true:

Most common site is lateral neck. ***Most common site is lateral neck*** - **Branchial cleft cysts** typically present as a mass in the **lateral neck**, anterior to the sternocleidomastoid muscle. - They are congenital anomalies resulting from incomplete obliteration of the branchial clefts during embryonic development. *50-70% are seen in lungs* - This statement is incorrect; branchial cysts are **cervical anomalous masses** arising from the branchial apparatus, not primarily found in the lungs. - Lung lesions are more commonly associated with congenital pulmonary airway malformations or bronchogenic cysts, which differ in origin. *They are premalignant lesions* - Branchial cysts are generally **benign lesions** and do not typically transform into malignancy. - While rare cases of carcinoma arising within a branchial cleft cyst have been reported, they are not considered routinely premalignant. *Infection is uncommon in branchial cysts* - Conversely, infection is a **common complication** of branchial cysts, often leading to sudden enlargement, pain, and erythema. - The presence of internal fluid and epithelial lining makes them susceptible to bacterial colonization and subsequent abscess formation.

Q: A 40-year-old male with chest trauma presents with breathlessness, decreased respiratory sounds on the right side, hyperresonance on percussion, and distended neck veins. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Tension Pneumothorax. ***Tension Pneumothorax*** - The classic triad of **breathlessness**, **decreased breath sounds** on the affected side, and **hyperresonance** on percussion following chest trauma is highly indicative of a tension pneumothorax. - **Distended neck veins** (jugular venous distension) occur due to increased intrathoracic pressure impeding venous return to the heart. *Cardiac Tamponade* - Characterized by **Beck's triad**: hypotension, muffled heart sounds, and jugular venous distension. - While **distended neck veins** are present, the absence of muffled heart sounds, the presence of decreased breath sounds, and hyperresonance point away from tamponade. *Flail Chest* - Defined by at least two contiguous ribs fractured in at least two places, leading to a **paradoxical movement** of the chest wall during respiration. - The key diagnostic feature of flail chest (paradoxical chest wall movement) is not described, nor are the breath sounds or percussion findings consistent with this diagnosis. *Myocardial Infarction* - Typically presents with **sudden chest pain**, often radiating to the left arm or jaw, and may cause breathlessness. - It does not cause **decreased breath sounds**, **hyperresonance**, or directly lead to these specific localized chest findings after trauma.

Q: Which of the following stages of lip carcinoma does not have nodal involvement?

T3N0. ***T3N0*** - The **'N' classification** in the TNM staging system refers to **nodal involvement**. A stage with **'N0' indicates no regional lymph node metastasis**. - A **T3 lesion** signifies a large primary tumor, but if it's accompanied by **N0**, it means there's no evidence of spread to the lymph nodes. *T2N1* - The **'N1' classification** indicates the presence of **regional lymph node metastasis**, specifically in a **single ipsilateral lymph node** that is 3 cm or less in its greatest dimension. - This stage therefore **does have nodal involvement**, contradicting the premise of the question. *T2N2* - The **'N2' classification** signifies more advanced regional lymph node metastasis, such as a **single ipsilateral lymph node** greater than 3 cm but not more than 6 cm. - It could also refer to **multiple ipsilateral lymph nodes**, none greater than 6 cm, or bilateral/contralateral lymph nodes, none greater than 6 cm. In all these cases, **nodal involvement is present**. *T1N1* - Similar to T2N1, the **'N1' component** in T1N1 indicates the presence of **regional lymph node metastasis** in a single ipsilateral lymph node of 3 cm or less. - Therefore, this stage **does involve nodal spread**, despite having a smaller primary tumor (T1).

Question 1

ESWL is contraindicated in which of the following stones -

Accepted Answer

Cystine stones

Answer

Urate stones

Answer

Phosphate stones

Answer

Oxalate Stones

Question 2

Surgery for undescended testis is recommended at what age?

Accepted Answer

12 months

Answer

36 months

Answer

24 months

Answer

6 months

Question 3

Which of the following urethral anomalies is the most common?

Accepted Answer

Hypospadias

Answer

Pinhole meatus

Answer

Epispadias

Answer

Stricture of the urethra

Question 4

What is the optimal timing for administering antibiotic prophylaxis before surgery?

Accepted Answer

30-60 minutes before incision

Answer

Immediately before induction of anesthesia

Answer

2-3 hours before surgery

Answer

Immediately after surgery

Question 5

A 22 year old woman comes with a non progressive mass in the left breast since 6 months. There are no associated symptoms. Examination shows a mobile mass not attached to the overlying skin or underlying tissue. The possible diagnosis is

Accepted Answer

Fibroadenoma

Answer

Cystasarcoma Phylloides

Answer

Scirrhous Carcinoma

Answer

Fibroadenosis

Question 6

What type of respiratory failure is most commonly observed in post-operative patients?

Accepted Answer

Hypoxemic respiratory failure

Answer

Hypercapnic respiratory failure

Answer

Mixed respiratory failure

Answer

Perioperative respiratory failure

Question 7

Which of the following statements accurately describes a subtotal thyroidectomy?

Accepted Answer

Removal of 1 lobe with isthmus and the second lobe partially

Answer

Removal of one lobe and isthmus

Answer

Removal of both lobes leaving behind 6-8 grams of tissue

Answer

Removal of entire thyroid with cervical lymphnodes

Question 8

Which of the following statements about Branchial cysts is true:

Accepted Answer

Most common site is lateral neck

Answer

50-70% are seen in lungs

Answer

They are premalignant lesions

Answer

Infection is uncommon in branchial cysts

Question 9

A 40-year-old male with chest trauma presents with breathlessness, decreased respiratory sounds on the right side, hyperresonance on percussion, and distended neck veins. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Tension Pneumothorax

Answer

Flail Chest

Answer

Myocardial Infarction

Answer

Cardiac Tamponade

Question 10

Which of the following stages of lip carcinoma does not have nodal involvement?

Accepted Answer

T3N0

Answer

T2N1

Answer

T2N2

Answer

T1N1

NEET-PG 2015 — Surgery