Which of the following is the most characteristic sexual side effect of SSRIs?
Most common renal sequela of lithium toxicity is?
Which drug is not administered as a transdermal patch?
Antidepressant drug used in nocturnal enuresis is:
What is the primary mechanism of action of zonisamide?
Buprenorphine is a partial agonist at which opioid receptor?
Which diuretic is most likely to cause hyponatremia by impairing free water excretion?
Which of the following drugs is not used in the treatment of akathisia?
Where is the benzodiazepine binding site located on GABA receptors?
How do thiazides cause hypercalcemia?
NEET-PG 2015 - Pharmacology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 41: Which of the following is the most characteristic sexual side effect of SSRIs?
- A. Retrograde ejaculation
- B. Erectile dysfunction
- C. Delayed ejaculation (Correct Answer)
- D. Anxiety
Explanation: ***Delayed ejaculation*** - **Delayed ejaculation** is a common and characteristic sexual side effect of SSRIs due to their impact on serotonin pathways involved in sexual response. - This effect can lead to significant distress and non-adherence to treatment, and often requires dose adjustment or switching to an alternative antidepressant. *Erectile dysfunction* - While **erectile dysfunction** can occur with SSRIs, it is a less specific and less consistently reported sexual side effect compared to ejaculatory dysfunction. - Many factors, including underlying mood disorder and comorbidities, can contribute to erectile dysfunction, making it less characteristic of SSRI use alone. *Retrograde ejaculation* - **Retrograde ejaculation** is a condition where semen enters the bladder during orgasm, and while it can be a side effect of some medications (e.g., alpha-blockers), it is not a hallmark sexual side effect of SSRIs. - SSRIs primarily affect the process of emission and expulsion, leading more commonly to delayed or absent ejaculation rather than retrograde flow. *Anxiety* - **Anxiety** is generally a *primary symptom* of the conditions SSRIs are prescribed to treat, such as depression or anxiety disorders, not a sexual side effect of the medication itself. - Although SSRIs can initially cause or worsen anxiety in some patients before therapeutic effects are seen, this is a systemic side effect, not a sexual one.
Question 42: Most common renal sequela of lithium toxicity is?
- A. Renal tubular acidosis
- B. Glycosuria
- C. MPGN
- D. Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus*** - **Lithium** interferes with the action of **ADH** on the renal tubules, specifically at the **collecting ducts**, leading to an inability to concentrate urine. - This results in **polyuria** (excessive urination) and **polydipsia** (excessive thirst), characteristic symptoms of **nephrogenic diabetes insipidus**. *Renal tubular acidosis* - While lithium can affect tubular function, **renal tubular acidosis** is less common than nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. - RTA involves impaired acid excretion or bicarbonate reabsorption, leading to **metabolic acidosis**. *Glycosuria* - **Glycosuria** (glucose in urine) is primarily associated with **diabetes mellitus** or other conditions affecting glucose reabsorption in the proximal tubule. - Lithium toxicity does not typically cause glycosuria. *MPGN* - **Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis (MPGN)** is a type of glomerular injury characterized by specific changes in the glomerulus. - MPGN is not directly caused by **lithium toxicity**; lithium primarily affects tubular function rather than glomerular structure.
Question 43: Which drug is not administered as a transdermal patch?
- A. Morphine (Correct Answer)
- B. Fentanyl
- C. Clonidine
- D. Diclofenac
Explanation: ***Morphine*** - **Morphine** is generally not administered transdermally due to its **poor lipid solubility** [1] and **large molecular size**, which limit its ability to penetrate the skin effectively. - While experimental patches have been developed, they are **not widely available** or commonly used in clinical practice for systemic delivery. *Fentanyl* - **Fentanyl** is a potent opioid that is commonly administered via a **transdermal patch** for chronic pain management [2]. - Its **high lipid solubility** and small molecular size allow it to be effectively absorbed through the skin, providing sustained analgesia. *Clonidine* - **Clonidine** is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist available as a **transdermal patch** for the treatment of **hypertension**. - The patch provides a **continuous and steady release** of the drug, leading to consistent blood pressure control. *Diclofenac* - **Diclofenac** is a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) available in **transdermal patch** formulations for topical pain relief. - These patches are used for localized pain conditions like **osteoarthritis** and provide targeted drug delivery with reduced systemic side effects.
Question 44: Antidepressant drug used in nocturnal enuresis is:
- A. Imipramine (Correct Answer)
- B. Fluoxetine
- C. Trazodone
- D. Sertraline
Explanation: ***Imipramine*** - **Imipramine**, a **tricyclic antidepressant (TCA)**, is frequently used off-label for **nocturnal enuresis** in children [1]. - Its mechanism of action in enuresis is thought to involve a combination of anticholinergic effects (which relax the bladder detrusor muscle) and central nervous system effects (which may increase bladder capacity and arousal from sleep) [1]. *Fluoxetine* - **Fluoxetine** is a **selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)** and is primarily used for depression, anxiety disorders, and OCD [2]. - It is not indicated for the treatment of nocturnal enuresis and does not have the same bladder-relaxing or arousal-modulating properties as imipramine in this context. *Trazodone* - **Trazodone** is a **serotonin antagonist and reuptake inhibitor (SARI)**, commonly prescribed for depression and insomnia due to its prominent sedative effects. - It is not used for nocturnal enuresis and its mechanism of action does not confer benefits for bladder control. *Sertraline* - **Sertraline** is another **selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)** used for a wide range of psychiatric conditions, including depression, anxiety, and panic disorder [2]. - Like fluoxetine, it is not an appropriate treatment for nocturnal enuresis and lacks the specific known effects beneficial for this condition.
Question 45: What is the primary mechanism of action of zonisamide?
- A. GABA receptors
- B. Cl- channels
- C. Sodium channels (Correct Answer)
- D. T-type calcium channels
Explanation: ***Sodium channels (Correct Answer)*** - Zonisamide's primary mechanism involves **blocking voltage-sensitive sodium channels**, which stabilizes neuronal membranes and inhibits repetitive neuronal firing. - This action helps to prevent the propagation of **seizure activity** in the brain. *GABA receptors* - While zonisamide has some weak effects on GABA, it is not its **primary mechanism of action** for antiepileptic efficacy. - Drugs like **benzodiazepines** and **barbiturates** primarily act by enhancing GABAergic transmission. *T-type calcium channels* - Zonisamide also blocks T-type calcium channels, contributing to its broad-spectrum antiepileptic activity, but this is a **secondary mechanism** compared to its sodium channel blockade. - **Ethosuximide** is a classic example of a drug primarily acting on T-type calcium channels, especially for absence seizures. *Cl- channels* - Zonisamide does not primarily act on **chloride channels**; these are often modulated by GABA receptors. - Drugs that act directly on chloride channels are not typically used as **antiepileptics** in the same way.
Question 46: Buprenorphine is a partial agonist at which opioid receptor?
- A. Mu (Correct Answer)
- B. Kappa
- C. Delta
- D. ORL-1
Explanation: ***Mu*** - Buprenorphine primarily acts as a **partial agonist** at the **mu opioid receptor**, providing analgesic effects with a ceiling effect on respiratory depression. - Its partial agonism at the mu receptor contributes to its lower potential for respiratory depression and overdose compared to full mu agonists. *Kappa* - While buprenorphine has some antagonist activity at the kappa receptor, its primary therapeutic action is not at this receptor. - **Kappa receptor agonists** like pentazocine can produce dysphoria and psychotomimetic effects. *Delta* - The delta opioid receptor is involved in analgesia and emotional responses, but buprenorphine has very low affinity and activity at this receptor. - **Delta receptor agonists** are not widely used clinically due to limited efficacy and side effects. *ORL-1* - The ORL-1 (Opioid Receptor-like 1) receptor, also known as the nociceptin receptor, is distinct from classical opioid receptors. - Buprenorphine has **no significant activity** at the ORL-1 receptor, which primarily mediates pain, anxiety, and learning.
Question 47: Which diuretic is most likely to cause hyponatremia by impairing free water excretion?
- A. Loop diuretics
- B. Acetazolamide
- C. Amiloride
- D. Thiazide diuretics (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Thiazide diuretics*** - **Thiazide diuretics** inhibit the **Na-Cl cotransporter in the distal convoluted tubule (DCT)**, impairing the kidney's ability to dilute urine and excrete free water - This impaired urinary dilution leads to **water retention relative to sodium**, resulting in **dilutional hyponatremia** - **Most common in elderly patients**, those on low-salt diets, or with pre-existing volume depletion - **Mechanism**: By blocking sodium reabsorption in the DCT (a key site for urinary dilution), thiazides prevent the generation of free water, leading to hyponatremia when water intake continues *Loop diuretics* - **Loop diuretics** inhibit the **Na-K-2Cl cotransporter in the thick ascending limb of Henle**, causing significant diuresis - They impair the medullary concentration gradient, **enhancing free water excretion** - **Less likely to cause hyponatremia** compared to thiazides because they promote rather than impair free water clearance - When hyponatremia occurs with loop diuretics, it's usually due to concurrent SIADH or excessive free water intake *Acetazolamide* - **Acetazolamide** is a **carbonic anhydrase inhibitor** acting primarily on the **proximal tubule** - Causes **bicarbonate and sodium excretion**, leading to mild diuresis - Main side effect is **metabolic acidosis** (type 2 RTA) - **Does not significantly impair free water excretion**, making hyponatremia uncommon *Amiloride* - **Amiloride** is a **potassium-sparing diuretic** that blocks **epithelial sodium channels (ENaC) in the collecting duct** - Weak diuretic effect, primarily used to prevent potassium loss - **Does not impair urinary dilution mechanisms**, so hyponatremia is rare - Main concern is **hyperkalemia**, especially with ACE inhibitors or in renal insufficiency
Question 48: Which of the following drugs is not used in the treatment of akathisia?
- A. Benzodiazepine
- B. Propranolol
- C. Trihexyphenidyl
- D. Haloperidol (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Haloperidol*** - **Haloperidol** is a typical antipsychotic drug known to **cause** or worsen **akathisia**, rather than treat it. - Akathisia is an extrapyramidal symptom, and **first-generation antipsychotics** like haloperidol are frequent culprits due to their strong **D2 receptor blockade**. *Benzodiazepine* - **Benzodiazepines** like lorazepam or clonazepam are often used to treat akathisia due to their **sedative** and **anxiolytic** properties. - They act by enhancing **GABAergic transmission**, which can help calm the motor restlessness associated with akathisia. *Propranolol* - **Propranolol**, a **beta-blocker**, is a first-line treatment for akathisia, particularly effective for its objective motor symptoms. - It works by reducing **adrenergic activity**, which is thought to contribute to the motor restlessness. *Trihexyphenidyl* - **Trihexyphenidyl** is an **anticholinergic** agent primarily used to treat **parkinsonian-like extrapyramidal symptoms** (e.g., dystonia, pseudoparkinsonism). - While sometimes used for generalized EPS, it is **less effective** for the specific motor restlessness of akathisia compared to beta-blockers or benzodiazepines.
Question 49: Where is the benzodiazepine binding site located on GABA receptors?
- A. β-subunit
- B. δ-subunit
- C. γ-subunit (Correct Answer)
- D. α-subunit
Explanation: ***γ-subunit*** - The **benzodiazepine binding site** is located at the interface between the **α and γ subunits** of the GABA-A receptor, with the **γ-subunit (especially γ2) being essential** for benzodiazepine sensitivity. - The presence of the **γ2 subunit** is **mandatory** for benzodiazepine binding - receptors lacking this subunit are **insensitive to benzodiazepines**. - Benzodiazepines bind to this site and act as **positive allosteric modulators**, increasing the frequency of **chloride channel opening** in response to GABA. - This is the **standard answer** for NEET-PG and medical PG examinations in India. *α-subunit* - The **α-subunit** contributes to forming the benzodiazepine binding pocket at the α-γ interface. - Different **α-subunit isoforms** (α1, α2, α3, α5) determine the pharmacological profile and tissue distribution of benzodiazepine effects. - However, the **α-subunit alone** cannot bind benzodiazepines without the γ-subunit. *β-subunit* - The **β-subunit** contains the primary binding site for **GABA** itself. - It does not participate in benzodiazepine binding but is crucial for the receptor's overall function and GABAergic signaling. *δ-subunit* - The **δ-subunit** replaces the γ-subunit in certain GABA-A receptor subtypes that mediate **tonic inhibition**. - Receptors containing **δ-subunits** are **insensitive to benzodiazepines** but sensitive to neurosteroids and certain general anesthetics. - This is a key distinguishing feature between phasic (γ-containing) and tonic (δ-containing) GABA-A receptors.
Question 50: How do thiazides cause hypercalcemia?
- A. Decreased calcium excretion (Correct Answer)
- B. Increased parathyroid hormone secretion
- C. Decreased calcitonin secretion
- D. Increased calcium absorption
Explanation: ***Decreased calcium excretion*** - Thiazides inhibit the **Na-Cl co-transporter** in the **distal convoluted tubule**, leading to increased reabsorption of calcium [1], [2]. - This increased reabsorption of calcium is mediated by a low intracellular sodium concentration, which enhances the activity of the **Na+/Ca2+ exchanger** on the basolateral membrane [1]. *Increased parathyroid hormone secretion* - Thiazides **do not directly stimulate** parathyroid hormone (PTH) secretion; instead, they *decrease* calcium excretion, which would typically *lower* PTH levels through negative feedback. - Elevated PTH would lead to increased bone resorption and kidney calcium reabsorption, but this is not the **primary mechanism** for thiazide-induced hypercalcemia [2]. *Decreased calcitonin secretion* - **Calcitonin** is a hormone that *lowers* blood calcium levels, and its decrease would theoretically contribute to hypercalcemia. - However, thiazides have **no direct effect** on calcitonin secretion, making this an unlikely primary mechanism. *Increased calcium absorption* - While increased calcium absorption from the gut can contribute to hypercalcemia, thiazides do **not directly increase intestinal calcium absorption**. - Their primary action for influencing calcium levels is within the **kidney**, specifically on reabsorption, not absorption from the GI tract [1], [2].