NEET-PG 2015 - Obstetrics and Gynecology Practice Questions

Q: What condition is diagnosed using the Amsel criteria?

Bacterial vaginosis. ***Bacterial vaginosis*** - The **Amsel criteria** are specifically used for the clinical diagnosis of **bacterial vaginosis (BV)**. - The criteria include the presence of at least three of four findings: **homogeneous discharge**, **vaginal pH >4.5**, **positive whiff test**, and **clue cells** on microscopy. *Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome* - This syndrome is diagnosed based on **clinical criteria** (thrombosis, pregnancy morbidity) and the presence of persistent **antiphospholipid antibodies** (lupus anticoagulant, anti-cardiolipin, anti-β2-glycoprotein I antibodies). - It does not involve the use of the Amsel criteria. *Ovarian ectopic pregnancy* - Diagnosed primarily through **ultrasound imaging** showing a gestational sac or fetal heartbeat within the ovary, often accompanied by clinical symptoms like abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. - This condition is not related to vaginal infections or the Amsel criteria. *HELLP Syndrome* - **HELLP syndrome** (Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, Low Platelets) is a severe obstetric complication usually occurring in pregnancy, diagnosed by **laboratory findings** of these specific abnormalities. - It is a systemic condition, not a vaginal infection, and does not use the Amsel criteria for diagnosis.

Q: What is the most common cause of death in cervical cancer?

Renal failure. ***Renal failure*** - As cervical cancer progresses, it can invade surrounding structures, including the **ureters**. - **Ureteral obstruction** leads to **hydronephrosis** and ultimately **renal failure**, which is a common cause of death. *Infection* - While infections can occur due to immunosuppression or compromised tissue integrity in advanced cancer, they are generally **not the most common direct cause of death**. - Infections are often secondary complications rather than the primary mode of mortality. *Haemorrhage* - Local invasion of blood vessels by advanced cervical cancer can cause **significant bleeding** (haemorrhage). - While potentially life-threatening, it is **less frequent** as a direct cause of death compared to renal failure. *Metastasis to vital organs* - Cervical cancer can metastasize to distant organs like the lungs, liver, or bone; however, direct organ failure solely due to metastases is **less common than renal complications** from local tumor spread. - The impact of metastases often contributes to overall decline but is not the most frequent immediate cause of death.

Q: Which of the following is not a standard treatment option for CIN III?

Wertheim's hysterectomy. ***Wertheim's hysterectomy*** - A **Wertheim's hysterectomy**, also known as a **radical hysterectomy**, involves removal of the uterus, cervix, parametrium, and upper vagina, along with pelvic lymph node dissection. This is typically reserved for **invasive cervical cancer**, not CIN III. - While hysterectomy can be a treatment option for CIN III in specific circumstances (e.g., patient preference, coexisting uterine pathology), a Wertheim's hysterectomy is an **overly aggressive procedure** for precancerous lesions due to its significant morbidity. *LLETZ* - **Large Loop Excision of the Transformation Zone (LLETZ)**, also known as LEEP (Loop Electrosurgical Excision Procedure), is a common and effective outpatient treatment for CIN III. - It involves using a heated wire loop to **excise the abnormal tissue** from the cervix, allowing for histological examination. *Conization* - **Cold knife conization** involves excising a cone-shaped piece of tissue from the cervix using a scalpel. This method is highly effective for CIN III. - It provides **excellent pathological specimens** for evaluation of margins, which is crucial for confirming complete removal of the lesion. *Hysterectomy* - **Hysterectomy** (removal of the uterus, usually simple hysterectomy) can be considered a treatment option for CIN III, particularly in women who have completed childbearing and have other indications for hysterectomy, or when repeated excisional procedures have failed. - While effective, it is a more **invasive procedure** than LLETZ or conization and generally reserved for specific cases where conservative management is not suitable or desired.

Q: What size of Hegar's dilator, when passed through the internal os, indicates cervical incompetence?

8 or more. ***8 or more*** - The passage of a **Hegar's dilator of size 8 mm or larger** through the internal os without resistance is a classic diagnostic criterion for **cervical incompetence** or insufficiency. - This finding suggests a **weakened cervix** that is unable to withstand the pressure of a growing pregnancy, leading to recurrent mid-trimester pregnancy losses or preterm births. *4* - A Hegar's dilator of size 4 mm is relatively small and can often pass through a normal, non-pregnant **cervical os** without indicating pathology. - This size would not be considered abnormal and does not signify **cervical incompetence**. *6* - While a Hegar's dilator of 6 mm is larger than 4 mm, it is still generally within the range that might pass through a normal cervix, especially in **multiparous women**, without definitively diagnosing incompetence. - The threshold for diagnosing **cervical incompetence** is typically set higher, at 8 mm or more. *10* - While the passage of a 10 mm Hegar's dilator would certainly indicate **cervical incompetence**, the diagnostic cutoff is typically considered to be **8 mm or more**. - Any dilator **equal to or greater than 8 mm** confirms the diagnosis, so 10 mm is not the *only* size indicating incompetence.

Q: Funneling in cervicogram is seen in -

Weak cervical tissue leading to pregnancy complications. ***Weak cervical tissue leading to pregnancy complications*** - **Funneling** in a cervicogram (or during transvaginal ultrasound) indicates the shortening and dilation of the internal cervical os, forming a funnel shape. - This finding is a key indicator of **cervical insufficiency** or **weak cervical tissue**, which significantly increases the risk of preterm birth and other pregnancy complications due to the inability of the cervix to retain the pregnancy. *During labor* - While the cervix dilates and effaces during labor, the term "funneling" specifically refers to the premature opening of the internal os seen *before* active labor, often indicative of **cervical insufficiency**. - During active labor, the entire cervix generally dilates progressively, rather than forming a distinct funnel shape. *Cervical ectopic* - A **cervical ectopic pregnancy** involves the implantation of a fertilized egg within the cervical canal. - While it affects the cervix, the defining characteristic is the presence of an implanted gestational sac, not specifically cervical funneling. *During TVS* - **Transvaginal ultrasound (TVS)** is the primary method used to assess cervical length and detect funneling. - Funneling itself is a sign of cervical changes, observed *via* TVS, rather than TVS *causing* or *being* the funneling.

Q: Contracted pelvis is defined as a condition where the dimensions of the pelvis are reduced, making childbirth difficult. What is the minimum shortening of one or more planes that is considered significant?

1.5 cm. ***1.5 cm*** - A reduction of **1.5 cm or more** in any of the pelvic planes is widely accepted as **clinically significant** to define a contracted pelvis. - Most standard obstetric textbooks (including Williams Obstetrics and DC Dutta) cite **1.5-2 cm** as the threshold for clinically significant pelvic contraction. - This degree of shortening can impede the normal mechanism of labor and increase the risk of **cephalopelvic disproportion**. *1 cm* - While some older references mention 1 cm, the **generally accepted minimum threshold** in modern obstetric practice is **1.5-2 cm**. - A reduction of only 1 cm may not consistently cause significant obstetric complications and falls within the range of normal variation in many cases. *1.25 cm* - This value is **below the standard threshold** of 1.5-2 cm used to define a contracted pelvis in most authoritative obstetric texts. - While it represents some reduction, it does not meet the minimum accepted criterion for clinical significance. *0.5 cm* - A shortening of **0.5 cm** is **insufficient** to classify a pelvis as contracted. - Minor variations within this range fall within the **normal spectrum** and do not typically cause labor complications.

Q: What is the most common type of conjoint twin?

Thoracopagus. ***Thoracopagus*** - This type of conjoint twin, fused at the **thorax** and often sharing a heart and liver, is the **most common** variety, accounting for approximately **40%** of all cases. - The shared organs and complex anatomy often pose significant challenges for separation and survival. *Omphalopagus* - These twins are joined at the **abdomen** and typically share a liver, gastrointestinal tract, or other abdominal organs. - This is the second most common type, representing approximately **30-35%** of conjoint twins. *Craniopagus* - This rare form involves fusion at the **head**, often sharing parts of the skull, dura mater, or even brain tissue. - Due to the intricate neurological connections, craniopagus twins present exceptionally complex medical and ethical challenges, accounting for only **2-6%** of cases. *Rachipagus* - These twins are fused dorsally along the **spine** and typically share portions of the vertebral column and spinal cord. - This is an extremely rare type of conjoint twinning, representing less than **2%** of cases.

Q: Uterine height is greater than gestational age of the patient in a case of all except -

IUGR. ***IUGR*** - In **Intrauterine Growth Restriction (IUGR)**, the fetus is smaller than expected for gestational age, leading to a **fundal height** that measures less than the actual gestational age. - This condition is characterized by a **restricted growth rate** of the fetus, causing the uterine size to be disproportionately small. *Fibroid uterus* - The presence of **uterine fibroids** (leiomyomas) can increase the overall size of the uterus beyond what would be expected for a given gestational age. - These benign tumors add bulk to the uterine wall, leading to a **larger-than-expected uterine height**. *Wrong dates* - Incorrect estimation of the **Last Menstrual Period (LMP)** or date of conception can lead to a miscalculation of gestational age. - If the gestational age is **underestimated**, the actual uterine height will appear greater than the calculated gestational age. *Polyhydramnios* - **Polyhydramnios** is a condition characterized by an **excessive accumulation of amniotic fluid**, which distends the uterus. - Increased amniotic fluid volume leads to a significantly **larger uterine size** and a fundal height greater than the gestational age.

Q: Following delivery, a tear involving the perineum and external anal sphincter with intact mucosa is classified as which grade?

Third degree. ***Third degree*** - A third-degree perineal tear involves the **perineum** and the **external anal sphincter (EAS)**, either partially or completely, while the **anal mucosa remains intact**. - This classification is crucial for determining the necessary repair technique and predicting potential long-term complications related to **anal incontinence**. *First degree* - A first-degree tear involves only the **skin** of the perineum and the **vaginal mucosa**, without involving the underlying muscle. - These tears are typically superficial and may not even require suturing. *Second degree* - A second-degree tear involves the **perineal muscles** but does not extend to the anal sphincter. - It includes the vaginal mucosa, perineal skin, and muscles but spares the **external anal sphincter**. *Fourth degree* - A fourth-degree tear is the most severe, involving the **perineum**, **external anal sphincter**, and extending through the **anal mucosa**, exposing the rectal lumen. - These tears carry the highest risk of **fecal incontinence** and require meticulous surgical repair.

Q: Which of the following is NOT a cause of oligohydramnios?

Chorioangioma. ***Chorioangioma*** - A **chorioangioma** is a benign placental tumor that causes **polyhydramnios** (excess amniotic fluid), which is the **opposite** of oligohydramnios. - Large chorioangiomas lead to increased transudation from the tumor's vascular channels, fetal anemia, and high-output cardiac failure, resulting in increased fetal urine production. - This is clearly **NOT a cause** of oligohydramnios, making it the correct answer. *IUGR* - **Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)**, particularly with placental insufficiency, is a common cause of **oligohydramnios**. - Reduced placental perfusion leads to decreased **fetal renal blood flow** and diminished urine production. - Since fetal urine is the main source of amniotic fluid after 16 weeks, reduced output causes oligohydramnios. *Renal agenesis* - **Bilateral renal agenesis** (Potter syndrome) is a classic and severe cause of **oligohydramnios/anhydramnios**. - Complete absence of kidneys means **no fetal urine production**, eliminating the primary source of amniotic fluid in the second and third trimesters. - Results in severe oligohydramnios with associated pulmonary hypoplasia and Potter facies. *Amnion nodosum* - **Amnion nodosum** refers to small, grayish-yellow nodules on the fetal surface of the amnion, composed of aggregated fetal squamous epithelial cells and vernix. - These nodules are a **pathological finding** that occurs as a **consequence** of chronic oligohydramnios, not a cause. - They form due to prolonged contact between the fetal skin and amnion when amniotic fluid is severely reduced. - While technically "not a cause," it is strongly **associated with** oligohydramnios, whereas chorioangioma causes the opposite condition entirely.

Question 1

What condition is diagnosed using the Amsel criteria?

Accepted Answer

Bacterial vaginosis

Answer

Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome

Answer

Ovarian ectopic pregnancy

Answer

HELLP Syndrome

Question 2

What is the most common cause of death in cervical cancer?

Accepted Answer

Renal failure

Answer

Infection

Answer

Haemorrhage

Answer

Metastasis to vital organs

Question 3

Which of the following is not a standard treatment option for CIN III?

Accepted Answer

Wertheim's hysterectomy

Answer

LLETZ

Answer

Conization

Answer

Hysterectomy

Question 4

What size of Hegar's dilator, when passed through the internal os, indicates cervical incompetence?

Accepted Answer

8 or more

Answer

4

Answer

6

Answer

10

Question 5

Funneling in cervicogram is seen in -

Accepted Answer

Weak cervical tissue leading to pregnancy complications

Answer

Cervical ectopic

Answer

During TVS

Answer

During labor

Question 6

Contracted pelvis is defined as a condition where the dimensions of the pelvis are reduced, making childbirth difficult. What is the minimum shortening of one or more planes that is considered significant?

Accepted Answer

1.5 cm

Answer

0.5 cm

Answer

1.25 cm

Answer

1 cm

Question 7

What is the most common type of conjoint twin?

Accepted Answer

Thoracopagus

Answer

Omphalopagus

Answer

Craniopagus

Answer

Rachipagus

Question 8

Uterine height is greater than gestational age of the patient in a case of all except -

Accepted Answer

IUGR

Answer

Fibroid uterus

Answer

Wrong dates

Answer

Polyhydramnios

Question 9

Following delivery, a tear involving the perineum and external anal sphincter with intact mucosa is classified as which grade?

Accepted Answer

Third degree

Answer

First degree

Answer

Second degree

Answer

Fourth degree

Question 10

Which of the following is NOT a cause of oligohydramnios?

Accepted Answer

Chorioangioma

Answer

Renal agenesis

Answer

Amnion nodosum

Answer

IUGR

NEET-PG 2015 — Obstetrics and Gynecology