Which of the following does not predispose to leukemia?
Which subtype of Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML) is associated with the best prognosis?
Which of the following statements is true regarding amoebic liver abscess?
Which of the following is not a characteristic of Zieve syndrome?
Which of the following statements about CNS leukemia is false?
Thrombocythemia is characterized by an elevated platelet count.
In a patient with hypoglycemia, what is the appropriate dose adjustment of insulin?
What is the best indicator for assessing short-term control of blood glucose levels over a period of 2-3 weeks?
What is the recommended postprandial capillary glucose level (in mg/dl) for adequate diabetes control?
Hyperpigmentation is seen with which hormone?
NEET-PG 2015 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 31: Which of the following does not predispose to leukemia?
- A. Smoking
- B. Chemical exposure
- C. Alcohol (Correct Answer)
- D. Genetic disorder
Explanation: ***Alcohol*** - Alcohol consumption does not have a well-established association with an increased risk of leukemia compared to other factors. - While excessive alcohol can impact overall health, it is not considered a primary risk factor for developing leukemia. *Chemical exposure* - Certain chemicals, such as **benzene** and **formaldehyde**, are known to be **leukemogenic** and can increase the risk of leukemia. [1] - Occupational exposure to these chemicals has been linked to **acute myeloid leukemia (AML)** and other types of leukemia. [1] *Smoking* - Smoking has been clearly associated with an increased risk of **acute myeloid leukemia (AML)** and other hematologic malignancies. [1] - The toxins in tobacco smoke can cause **DNA damage**, contributing to the development of leukemia. *Genetic disorder* - Certain genetic disorders, like **Down syndrome** and **Fanconi anemia**, are associated with an increased risk of leukemia. - Individuals with these genetic predispositions have a higher likelihood of developing various forms of leukemia.
Question 32: Which subtype of Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML) is associated with the best prognosis?
- A. Acute myelo monocytic leukemia.
- B. Acute monocytic leukemia.
- C. Erythro leukemia
- D. Acute promyeloblastic leukemia (M3) (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Acute promyeloblastic leukemia (M.3)*** [1] - **Best prognosis** in acute myeloid leukemia (AML) is associated with acute promyeloblastic leukemia due to its responsiveness to **all-trans retinoic acid (ATRA)** treatment. [1] - This type often presents with a **prominent coagulopathy**, but successful treatment can lead to **long-term remission**. *Acute monocytic leukemia* - Generally associated with **poor prognosis** and is characterized by a high white blood cell count and organ infiltration. - It lacks the favorable features seen in acute promyeloblastic leukemia, such as effective treatment outcomes. *Erythroleukemia* - Known for having a **poor prognosis** due to its aggressive nature and frequent association with complex chromosomal abnormalities. [1] - Treatment responses are often suboptimal compared to that of acute promyeloblastic leukemia. *Acute myelomonocytic leukemia* - Typically has an **intermediate prognosis** [1] and presents with a mixture of myeloid and monocytic features. - It does not have the same treatment responsiveness and favorable outcomes as seen in acute promyeloblastic leukemia.
Question 33: Which of the following statements is true regarding amoebic liver abscess?
- A. May rupture into the pleural cavity.
- B. Mostly involving the right lobe of the liver. (Correct Answer)
- C. For asymptomatic luminal carriers, metronidazole is the drug of choice.
- D. Multiple abscesses is less common than a single abscess.
Explanation: ***Mostly involving the right lobe of the liver*** - The **right lobe** of the liver is the most common site for an amoebic liver abscess due to its larger size and preferential blood flow from the portal venous system, which drains the intestines where *Entamoeba histolytica* resides. - The **superior mesenteric vein**, draining the cecum and ascending colon (common sites for amebiasis), primarily feeds the right hepatic lobe. *May rupture into the pleural cavity* - While rupture can occur, the **peritoneal cavity** is a more common site of rupture for amoebic liver abscesses. - Rupture into the pleural cavity or lung is less frequent but can lead to **empyema** or **bronchopleural fistula** [1]. *For asymptomatic luminal carriers, metronidazole is the drug of choice* - **Metronidazole** is effective against invasive amoebiasis (like liver abscess or dysentery) but is not the drug of choice for asymptomatic luminal carriers. - For **asymptomatic luminal carriers**, **luminal amebicides** such as **paromomycin** or **diloxanide furoate** are used to eradicate cysts from the intestine [1]. *Multiple abscesses is less common than a single abscess* - **A single amoebic liver abscess** is more common than multiple abscesses [1]. - Multiple abscesses are typically seen in disseminated disease or immunocompromised individuals, though even then a solitary lesion is more frequent.
Question 34: Which of the following is not a characteristic of Zieve syndrome?
- A. Alcohol abuse
- B. Chronic pancreatitis (Correct Answer)
- C. Hemolysis
- D. Hypertriglyceridemia
Explanation: ***Chronic pancreatitis*** - **Zieve syndrome** is an acute, not chronic, condition, and its primary feature is not chronic pancreatic inflammation, though severe alcohol use can cause both. - While **alcohol abuse** is a risk factor for both Zieve syndrome and chronic pancreatitis, **chronic pancreatitis** itself is not considered a characteristic component of Zieve syndrome [1]. *Alcohol abuse* - **Alcohol abuse** is the underlying cause for the development of Zieve syndrome, leading to the characteristic triad of hemolytic anemia, hyperlipidemia, and jaundice. - It triggers the **liver damage** and metabolic disturbances that define the syndrome. *Hemolysis* - **Hemolysis** (destruction of red blood cells) is a key feature of Zieve syndrome, leading to **hemolytic anemia** and jaundice. - It results from increased red blood cell fragility and splenic sequestration exacerbated by altered lipid metabolism. *Hypertriglyceridemia* - **Hypertriglyceridemia** is a hallmark of Zieve syndrome, arising from impaired lipid metabolism secondary to alcohol-induced liver damage. - Elevated **triglyceride levels** contribute to red blood cell membrane abnormalities, thereby promoting hemolysis.
Question 35: Which of the following statements about CNS leukemia is false?
- A. Intrathecal methotrexate is given
- B. Seen with acute myeloid leukemia
- C. CNS irradiation is given
- D. Single blast in CSF is sufficient for diagnosis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Seen with acute myeloid leukemia*** - CNS involvement is typically not a common feature of **acute myeloid leukemia (AML)**; it's more associated with acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) [1]. - While leukemia can affect the CNS, **AML is not predominantly known** for this complication compared to ALL . *Single blast in CSF is sufficient for diagnosis* - A **single blast** in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) does **not establish a definitive diagnosis** of CNS leukemia; multiple blasts are typically required. - Diagnosis involves considering clinical symptoms, laboratory findings, and often requires **a combination of findings** to confirm CNS involvement. *Intrathecal methotrexate is given* - **Intrathecal methotrexate** is used for treatment of CNS leukemia; however, this statement is true and does not meet the 'except' criteria. - It is a common practice to deliver chemotherapy directly to the CNS to combat leukemia effectively. *CNS irradiation is given* - CNS irradiation can be used as a treatment modality in certain instances of leukemia; thus, this statement is also true. - It is part of the therapeutic strategies for managing CNS involvement but is not universally applied for all cases.
Question 36: Thrombocythemia is characterized by an elevated platelet count.
- A. Low platelets
- B. Neutrophilia
- C. Monocytosis
- D. Elevated platelet count (Correct Answer)
Explanation: Elevated platelet count - Thrombocythemia is a condition specifically defined by an abnormally high number of platelets (thrombocytes) in the blood [2]. - This elevated count can lead to issues with both bleeding and clotting [2]. Low platelets - Low platelets, also known as thrombocytopenia, is the opposite of thrombocythemia [1]. - This condition is associated with an increased risk of bleeding [1]. Neutrophilia - Neutrophilia refers to an elevated count of neutrophils, a type of white blood cell, which is typically seen in bacterial infections. - It does not directly describe the platelet count. Monocytosis - Monocytosis indicates an increase in monocytes, another type of white blood cell, often seen in chronic infections or inflammatory conditions. - This term is unrelated to platelet levels.
Question 37: In a patient with hypoglycemia, what is the appropriate dose adjustment of insulin?
- A. Increase insulin dosage
- B. Decrease insulin dosage (Correct Answer)
- C. Maintain current insulin dosage
- D. Add a different medication
Explanation: ***Decrease insulin dosage*** - Hypoglycemia indicates that the current insulin dose is too high, causing blood glucose levels to drop excessively [1]. - Reducing the insulin dosage helps prevent future episodes of low blood sugar by allowing blood glucose to remain within a healthier range [1]. *Increase insulin dosage* - Increasing insulin would further lower blood glucose, exacerbating the **hypoglycemia** and potentially leading to a more severe and dangerous state. - This action is appropriate for **hyperglycemia**, not hypoglycemia. *Maintain current insulin dosage* - Maintaining the current dose would not address the problem, as it has already proven to be too much for the patient, causing the **hypoglycemic episodes** [1]. - This approach would leave the patient at continued risk for recurrent hypoglycemia. *Add a different medication* - While other medications might be used in diabetes management, adding a new one without adjusting the existing insulin dose could further complicate blood glucose control. - The immediate and most direct action for **hypoglycemia** caused by insulin is to adjust the insulin itself [1].
Question 38: What is the best indicator for assessing short-term control of blood glucose levels over a period of 2-3 weeks?
- A. Serum fructosamine (Correct Answer)
- B. Blood sugar
- C. Urine sugar
- D. HbA1c
Explanation: ***Serum fructosamine*** - **Fructosamine** reflects the glycation of serum proteins, primarily albumin, which has a shorter half-life (around 17-20 days) compared to hemoglobin. - This allows it to assess average blood glucose control over the preceding **2-3 weeks**, making it suitable for short-term monitoring. *HbA1c* - **HbA1c** (glycated hemoglobin) reflects average blood glucose levels over the lifespan of red blood cells, typically **2-3 months** [1]. - While an excellent long-term indicator, its longer time frame makes it less suitable for assessing short-term changes over just 2-3 weeks [1]. *Blood sugar* - A single **blood sugar** measurement (fasting or random) provides an instantaneous snapshot of glucose levels at that specific moment [2]. - It does not reflect average glucose control over a period of 2-3 weeks and is highly influenced by recent food intake and activity [2]. *Urine sugar* - **Urine sugar** levels indicate that the kidney's reabsorption capacity for glucose has been exceeded, resulting in glucose spilling into the urine [3]. - This is a qualitative or semi-quantitative measure that primarily reflects very high blood glucose levels and is not a reliable indicator of averaged glucose control over any specific time frame [3].
Question 39: What is the recommended postprandial capillary glucose level (in mg/dl) for adequate diabetes control?
- A. < 180 mg/dl (Correct Answer)
- B. < 200 mg/dl
- C. < 100 mg/dl
- D. < 140 mg/dl
Explanation: ***< 180 mg/dl*** - This is the **recommended target** for postprandial (1-2 hours after a meal) capillary glucose levels in most non-pregnant adults with diabetes to achieve **adequate glycemic control** [1], [2]. - Maintaining levels below 180 mg/dl helps to minimize the risk of **long-term microvascular and macrovascular complications**. *< 100 mg/dl* - While this is an ideal fasting glucose level, it is generally **too low for postprandial glucose**, and attempting to maintain such levels might increase the risk of **hypoglycemia** in many patients with diabetes [1]. - This target is more appropriate for **fasting or pre-meal glucose** goals. *< 140 mg/dl* - This is a **more stringent target** that may be appropriate for some individuals with diabetes, particularly those who are carefully managed and at low risk of hypoglycemia. - However, for the general population with diabetes, **< 180 mg/dl is the more commonly accepted and achievable goal** for postprandial readings [2]. *< 200 mg/dl* - A postprandial glucose level of < 200 mg/dl is considered **good control** in some contexts, but it's often a **less strict target** than < 180 mg/dl for optimal long-term management. - While better than uncontrolled high levels, consistently approaching 200 mg/dl may still contribute to **increased risk of complications** over time compared to tighter control.
Question 40: Hyperpigmentation is seen with which hormone?
- A. TSH
- B. ACTH (Correct Answer)
- C. FSH
- D. LH
Explanation: ***ACTH*** - In conditions like **Addison's disease**, the adrenal glands' inability to produce cortisol leads to increased **ACTH** (adrenocorticotropic hormone) secretion due to a lack of negative feedback [3], [4]. - ACTH is derived from proopiomelanocortin (POMC), which also gives rise to alpha-melanocyte-stimulating hormone (α-MSH). Elevated ACTH levels can thus stimulate melanocytes, causing **hyperpigmentation** in skin folds, buccal mucosa, and pressure points [4]. *FSH* - **FSH** (follicle-stimulating hormone) primarily regulates the development of **follicles in the ovaries** and sperm production in the testes [1]. - There is no known direct association between excessive FSH levels and **hyperpigmentation**. *TSH* - **TSH** (thyroid-stimulating hormone) stimulates the **thyroid gland** to produce thyroid hormones (T3 and T4) [1]. - While thyroid disorders can affect skin texture and moisture, there is no direct link between elevated TSH and **hyperpigmentation**. *LH* - **LH** (luteinizing hormone) plays a key role in **ovulation** in females and testosterone production in males [2]. - High LH levels are not associated with **hyperpigmentation**.