Which of the following statements about ASHA workers is NOT true?
Which of the following is NOT a duty of an ASHA worker?
Swajaldhara programme is associated with:
Which of the following screening methods is primarily used under the National Tuberculosis Elimination Program (NTEP)?
Most common cause of goiter in India is
Japanese encephalitis vaccine in routine schedule is given in how many doses -
According to PCPNDT Act, 1994, what is the punishment for a doctor found guilty of sex determination for the first offense?
Group of 4-8 experts talking in front of a large group of audience is known as:
Infective period of chicken pox is
Disinfection of urine is which type of disinfection ?
NEET-PG 2015 - Community Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 71: Which of the following statements about ASHA workers is NOT true?
- A. Local resident
- B. Informs about birth and deaths in her village to PHC
- C. Works per 1000 people of an area
- D. Education at least till 4th class or higher (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Education at least till 4th class or higher*** - This statement is **NOT true**. The educational qualification for an ASHA worker is typically stated as **8th class or higher**, not 4th class. - While flexibility may exist in some remote areas, the general guideline requires a higher level of foundational education. *Informs about birth and deaths in her village to PHC* - This is a true statement regarding an ASHA worker's responsibilities, as they are crucial for **community-level data collection** and reporting to the **Primary Health Center (PHC)**. - ASHAs play a vital role in health surveillance, including reporting **births, deaths, and disease outbreaks**. *Local resident* - This is a true characteristic of an ASHA worker; they must be a **resident of the village** they serve. - Being a local resident ensures **community trust**, cultural understanding, and accessibility to the population. *Works per 1000 people of an area* - This is a true statement outlining the typical **population coverage** for an ASHA worker. - ASHAs are typically appointed to serve a population of approximately **1000 people** in rural areas to ensure adequate reach and support.
Question 72: Which of the following is NOT a duty of an ASHA worker?
- A. Administering zero dose of DPT and OPV (Correct Answer)
- B. Assessing the success of national programs under ANM
- C. Primary screening for prevalence of non-communicable diseases
- D. All of the options
Explanation: ***Correct: Administering zero dose of DPT and OPV*** - **ASHA workers do NOT administer vaccines** - this is strictly beyond their scope of practice - According to **NRHM guidelines**, ASHAs are **facilitators and mobilizers** for immunization, not vaccine administrators - Only **ANMs and trained health workers** are authorized to administer vaccines including DPT and OPV - ASHAs role is to **identify beneficiaries, create awareness, and escort mothers/children to immunization centers** - Vaccine administration requires technical training and cold chain management that ASHAs are not equipped for *Incorrect: Assessing the success of national programs under ANM* - While this is also not a primary ASHA duty, the question asks for what is NOT a duty - Program assessment is done at district/state levels through monitoring and evaluation teams - However, between administering vaccines (strictly prohibited) vs program assessment (not their role but may provide data), vaccine administration is more clearly NOT their duty *Incorrect: Primary screening for prevalence of non-communicable diseases* - This **IS a duty** of ASHA workers under **NPCDCS** (National Programme for Prevention and Control of Cancer, Diabetes, CVD and Stroke) - ASHAs conduct basic screening for hypertension, diabetes, and common cancers using simple tools - They refer suspected cases to appropriate health facilities for confirmation and management *Incorrect: All of the options* - This is incorrect because primary NCD screening IS part of ASHA duties, and administering vaccines is the most clearly defined non-duty among the options
Question 73: Swajaldhara programme is associated with:
- A. Provision of safe drinking water (Correct Answer)
- B. Provision of food supplements for destitute women
- C. Provision of relief for victim of sexual abuse
- D. Provision of health care for sick tribals
Explanation: ***Provision of safe drinking water*** - The **Swajaldhara programme** was launched by the Government of India in 2002 to accelerate coverage of **drinking water supply** in rural areas - Its primary objective was to ensure access to **safe and sustainable drinking water sources** through community participation and decentralized management - The program emphasized local ownership with communities contributing 10% of project costs *Provision of food supplements for destitute women* - Food security programs for women fall under separate social welfare schemes like ICDS and PDS - The **Swajaldhara programme** was specifically focused on **water supply infrastructure**, not nutrition *Provision of relief for victim of sexual abuse* - Relief for victims of sexual abuse is addressed through **justice and women's safety initiatives** (e.g., One Stop Centres, Nirbhaya Fund) - This is unrelated to the water supply mandate of Swajaldhara *Provision of health care for sick tribals* - Health care for tribal populations is managed through dedicated programs under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare - Swajaldhara's scope was limited to **rural drinking water infrastructure**, not healthcare delivery
Question 74: Which of the following screening methods is primarily used under the National Tuberculosis Elimination Program (NTEP)?
- A. Active
- B. Passive (Correct Answer)
- C. Mass
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Passive*** - Under the NTEP, **passive screening** involves individuals presenting to health facilities with symptoms suggestive of TB. - This method relies on **patient self-reporting** and healthcare provider suspicion, rather than active outreach. - Passive case finding is the **primary screening strategy** used across the general population in the NTEP framework. *Active* - **Active screening** involves community-based interventions to proactively identify individuals with TB, often in high-risk populations. - While active case finding is crucial for specific vulnerable groups (contacts, HIV patients, etc.), it is **not the primary screening method** under the standard NTEP framework for initial detection across the entire population. *Mass* - **Mass screening** involves testing large numbers of people in the general population, regardless of symptoms, to detect disease. - This is generally **cost-prohibitive** and not routinely implemented as a primary screening strategy for TB by the NTEP due to resource limitations and low yield in the general population. *None of the options* - **Passive screening** is indeed a primary method used under the NTEP, making this option incorrect. - The NTEP heavily relies on individuals seeking care when they experience symptoms, which aligns with the definition of passive case finding.
Question 75: Most common cause of goiter in India is
- A. Diffuse Endemic Goitre (Correct Answer)
- B. Papillary Carcinoma
- C. Toxic Multinodular Goitre
- D. Hashimoto's Thyroiditis
Explanation: ***Diffuse Endemic Goitre*** - **Iodine deficiency** is the leading cause of goiter globally, particularly in areas with poor iodine intake like some regions in India, leading to **diffuse endemic goiter** - In response to low iodine, the thyroid gland undergoes **hypertrophy** and **hyperplasia**, increasing in size in an attempt to capture more iodine for thyroid hormone synthesis - Despite the **Universal Salt Iodization (USI) program**, iodine deficiency disorders remain a significant public health concern in several Indian states *Papillary Carcinoma* - While it can cause a thyroid mass, **papillary carcinoma** is a malignant neoplastic condition, not the most common cause of generalized goiter - It presents as a **solitary or dominant nodule** and is not typically associated with widespread iodine deficiency - Accounts for only a small percentage of thyroid enlargements *Toxic Multinodular Goitre* - This condition involves multiple autonomously functioning nodules and primarily causes **hyperthyroidism**, not just goiter as a primary common presentation - More common in **elderly patients** and in regions with prior iodine deficiency (Jod-Basedow phenomenon) - Does not represent the most widespread cause of goiter in the general population of India *Hashimoto's Thyroiditis* - Hashimoto's is an **autoimmune disease** causing chronic lymphocytic thyroid inflammation and often hypothyroidism - While it can cause goiter, it typically produces a **firmer, less diffuse enlargement** than that seen with **iodine deficiency** - Not the most common cause of goiter in India, though its prevalence is increasing in urban areas
Question 76: Japanese encephalitis vaccine in routine schedule is given in how many doses -
- A. Two doses (at 9-12 months and 15-18 months) (Correct Answer)
- B. Single dose vaccine
- C. Three doses 1 month apart followed by a booster if needed
- D. Three doses with the second dose 1 month and 3rd dose 6 months after the first dose
Explanation: ***Two doses (at 9-12 months and 15-18 months)*** - The **routine JE vaccination schedule in India** as per NTAGI and IAP recommendations involves **two doses**. - **First dose** is given at **9-12 months** of age. - **Second dose** is administered at **15-18 months** (or up to 24 months), approximately **6-12 months after the first dose**. - This provides adequate long-term protection against Japanese encephalitis in endemic areas. *Single dose vaccine* - A single dose does **not provide adequate long-lasting protection** against Japanese encephalitis. - The **immune response** from a single dose is insufficient for routine immunization. - Two doses are required to ensure protective antibody levels. *Three doses 1 month apart followed by a booster if needed* - This schedule is **not part of the routine immunization program** for JE in India. - The standard routine schedule involves **only 2 primary doses**, not three. - Rapid three-dose schedules may be used in specific outbreak situations but not for routine immunization. *Three doses with the second dose 1 month and 3rd dose 6 months after the first dose* - This three-dose schedule is **not the routine JE vaccination schedule** in India. - This may be confused with schedules for other vaccines or older JE vaccine protocols. - The current **routine schedule requires only 2 doses** at specified age intervals.
Question 77: According to PCPNDT Act, 1994, what is the punishment for a doctor found guilty of sex determination for the first offense?
- A. 5 years
- B. 3 years (Correct Answer)
- C. 2 years
- D. 1 year
Explanation: ***3 years*** - The **PCPNDT Act, 1994** (Pre-Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques Act) specifies imprisonment of up to **3 years** for a first-time offense of sex determination. - This is paired with a fine of up to **₹10,000**, and the registration of the medical practitioner is also suspended for a period of **five years** for the first offense. - The Act aims to prevent female feticide and maintain the **sex ratio**. *5 years* - An imprisonment term of **5 years** applies for **subsequent offenses** after conviction for the first offense. - The registration can be permanently cancelled for repeat offenders. *2 years* - This duration is **not specified** in the PCPNDT Act as a punishment for sex determination. - Neither imprisonment nor suspension of registration for 2 years is mentioned in the Act for this offense. *1 year* - A 1-year imprisonment is not specified under the PCPNDT Act for sex determination. - The Act intends to impose stringent penalties (up to 3 years for first offense, up to 5 years for subsequent offense) to deter such practices.
Question 78: Group of 4-8 experts talking in front of a large group of audience is known as:
- A. Panel discussion (Correct Answer)
- B. Symposium
- C. Workshop
- D. Seminar
Explanation: ***Panel discussion*** - A **panel discussion** involves a small group of experts (4-8) presenting their views and discussing a specific topic in front of a larger audience. - The format typically includes an initial presentation by each panelist, followed by a moderated discussion among the panelists and sometimes questions from the audience. *Symposium* - A **symposium** is a formal meeting at which several experts or specialists deliver short presentations on a particular subject. - While it involves experts, it typically consists of a series of individual presentations rather than an interactive discussion among the presenters. *Workshop* - A **workshop** is a training or educational meeting where participants engage in intensive discussion and activity on a particular subject or project. - The primary focus is on hands-on learning and skill development for the attendees, not primarily on experts talking to an audience. *Seminar* - A **seminar** is a meeting or conference for discussion or training, usually involving a small group of students or professionals. - It often involves a leader or speaker presenting information, followed by discussion, but it is typically smaller and more interactive than a large expert panel.
Question 79: Infective period of chicken pox is
- A. 2 days before and 5 days after rash appearance (Correct Answer)
- B. 4 days before and 5 days after rash appearance
- C. 4 days before and 4 days after rash appearance
- D. 2 days before and 2 days after rash appearance
Explanation: ***2 days before and 5 days after rash appearance*** - The **infective period** for **chickenpox (varicella)** begins approximately **1-2 days before the rash appears** and continues until **all lesions have crusted over**, which typically occurs around **5-7 days after rash onset**. - According to **CDC guidelines** and standard medical references, patients are contagious from 1-2 days prior to rash onset until all vesicles are scabbed. - The timeframe of **2 days before and 5 days after** represents the **clinically accepted standard** for isolation and infection control purposes. *4 days before and 5 days after rash appearance* - This option **overestimates the start of the infective period**. - The incubation period of chickenpox is 10-21 days, but **infectivity does not begin 4 days before rash** - it starts only 1-2 days prior. - This extended timeframe is not supported by standard medical literature. *4 days before and 4 days after rash appearance* - This option **overestimates when infectivity begins** and **underestimates the duration after rash onset**. - Infectivity starts 1-2 days before rash, not 4 days before. - The period after rash onset should extend until all lesions are crusted (typically 5-7 days). *2 days before and 2 days after rash appearance* - While this option correctly identifies when infectivity begins, it **significantly underestimates the duration after rash onset**. - Patients remain contagious until **all lesions have crusted over**, which usually takes **5-7 days** after rash appearance, not just 2 days. - Premature discontinuation of isolation at 2 days would pose significant infection control risks.
Question 80: Disinfection of urine is which type of disinfection ?
- A. Concurrent (Correct Answer)
- B. Terminal
- C. Preconcurrent
- D. Precurrent
Explanation: ***Concurrent*** - **Concurrent disinfection** refers to the immediate disinfection of infectious materials and objects **as soon as they are discharged** from the body of an infected person. - Disinfection of **body excretions** (urine, feces, sputum) and articles contaminated by them is done **promptly after they are voided**, making it concurrent disinfection. - In the context of urine from infected patients, it should be disinfected **immediately after collection** to prevent spread of infection. *Terminal* - **Terminal disinfection** is performed **after the patient has been discharged, died, or is no longer infectious**. - It involves thorough cleaning and disinfection of the **room, furniture, and environment** that the patient occupied. - Terminal disinfection is not the routine disinfection of body excretions, but rather the final cleaning of the patient's surroundings. *Preconcurrent* - **"Preconcurrent"** is not a standard or recognized term in the classification of disinfection types. - This option does not describe a method or timing of disinfection that is medically or scientifically established. *Precurrent* - Similar to "preconcurrent," **"precurrent"** is not a recognized category or term used to describe a type of disinfection process. - The standard classifications include **concurrent, terminal, and prophylactic disinfection**.