NEET-PG 2013 — Radiology
44 Previous Year Questions with Answers & Explanations
Inferior rib notching is seen in which of the following conditions?
Hose pipe appearance of intestine is a feature of
The procedure of choice for the evaluation of aortic aneurysms is -
What is the primary use of the Balthazar scoring system?
Retrocardiac lucency with air fluid level is seen in
The CT severity index in acute pancreatitis is described by:
All the following are true of craniopharyngioma except:
What is the best imaging view for assessing the nasal bone in X-ray?
The most accurate investigation for assessing ventricular function is:
A chest X-ray shows bilateral lung infiltrates. What is the next best investigation?
NEET-PG 2013 - Radiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: Inferior rib notching is seen in which of the following conditions?
- A. Rickets
- B. ASD
- C. Multiple myeloma
- D. Coarctation of the aorta (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Coarctation of the aorta*** - **Inferior rib notching** is a classic radiographic sign caused by the **enlarged, tortuous intercostal arteries** eroding the inferior margins of the ribs. - This collateral circulation develops to bypass the narrowed aortic segment, increasing blood flow through the intercostal arteries. *Rickets* - Rickets can cause **bowing of long bones**, widened epiphyseal plates, and a **rachitic rosary** (enlargement of costochondral junctions). - It does not typically lead to rib notching; rather, it affects bone mineralization and growth patterns. *ASD* - An **atrial septal defect (ASD)** is a congenital heart defect causing a left-to-right shunt, leading to pulmonary overload and right heart enlargement. - While it can manifest with cardiomegaly and increased pulmonary vascular markings, it does not cause rib notching. *Multiple myeloma* - Multiple myeloma is a plasma cell malignancy that causes **punched-out lytic lesions** in bones, leading to bone pain and pathological fractures. - While it affects bone, the lesions are typically osteolytic and diffuse, not specifically causing inferior rib notching.
Question 2: Hose pipe appearance of intestine is a feature of
- A. Malabsorption syndrome
- B. Ulcerative colitis (Correct Answer)
- C. Crohn's disease
- D. Hirschsprung disease
Explanation: ***Crohns disease*** - The **hose pipe appearance** of the intestine on imaging is due to **transmural inflammation** and **strictures**, characteristic of Crohn's disease [1]. - This feature indicates a **narrowed lumen** due to fibrosis, often affecting the small intestine or colon [1]. *Malabsorption syndrome* - This condition is primarily associated with **nutrient absorption issues**, not structural changes in the intestine. - It typically presents with **diarrhea**, **weight loss**, and **malnutrition**, lacking the characteristic imaging findings. *Ulcerative colitis* - Usually presents with **continuous lesions** confined to the colonic mucosa, leading to ulcers and inflammation but not a **hose pipe appearance**. - Symptoms include **bloody diarrhea** and **abdominal pain**, distinctly different from Crohn's disease. *Hirsprung disease* - A congenital condition causing **intestinal obstruction** due to the absence of ganglion cells, leading to **dilated proximal bowel** rather than a hose pipe appearance. - Typically presents in infants with **severe constipation** and **abdominal distension**, unrelated to imaging features seen in Crohn's disease. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Alimentary System Disease, pp. 366-367.
Question 3: The procedure of choice for the evaluation of aortic aneurysms is -
- A. Computed tomography (Correct Answer)
- B. Magnetic resonance imaging
- C. Arteriography
- D. Ultrasonography
Explanation: ***Computed tomography*** - **Computed tomography (CT)** offers excellent spatial resolution and is the gold standard for diagnosing, staging, and pre-operative planning for aortic aneurysms. - It precisely measures aneurysm size, detects mural thrombus, assesses rupture risk, and evaluates the extent of involvement with surrounding structures. *Ultrasonography* - While useful for initial screening and serial monitoring of known abdominal aortic aneurysms due to its non-invasiveness and cost-effectiveness, its accuracy can be limited by **patient body habitus** and **bowel gas**. - It may not reliably visualize the entire aorta or accurately assess complex anatomy and rupture. *Magnetic resonance imaging* - **Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)** provides detailed anatomical information and avoids radiation exposure, but it is typically more expensive and time-consuming than CT. - It is often reserved for patients with **renal insufficiency** where iodinated contrast is a concern or when evaluating specific tissue characteristics not well seen on CT. *Arteriography* - **Arteriography** (angiography) is an invasive procedure involving direct contrast injection, carrying risks such as arterial injury and nephrotoxicity. - While it can visualize the aortic lumen, it primarily shows the patent lumen and may **underestimate the true aneurysm size** due to mural thrombus. It is typically used for intervention planning or specific contexts rather than initial diagnosis.
Question 4: What is the primary use of the Balthazar scoring system?
- A. Acute Pancreatitis (Correct Answer)
- B. Acute Appendicitis
- C. Acute Cholecystitis
- D. Cholangitis
Explanation: ***Acute Pancreatitis*** - The Balthazar score (also known as the **CT Severity Index** for pancreatitis) is primarily used to assess the severity of **acute pancreatitis** based on findings from a **CT scan**. - It evaluates pancreatic inflammation and necrosis, correlating with patient prognosis and the risk of complications. *Acute Appendicitis* - Acute appendicitis is typically diagnosed clinically, often with the help of the **Alvarado score** or imaging like ultrasound/CT, but not the Balthazar score. - The Balthazar score's focus on pancreatic changes is irrelevant to appendiceal inflammation. *Acute Cholecystitis* - Diagnosis of acute cholecystitis is based on clinical signs, lab tests, and imaging (ultrasound showing **gallbladder wall thickening**, pericholecystic fluid, or stones). - The Balthazar scoring system does not apply to the assessment of gallbladder inflammation. *Cholangitis* - Cholangitis is an infection of the bile ducts, diagnosed using the **Tokyo Guidelines**, which consider systemic inflammation, cholestasis, and imaging of biliary obstruction. - The Balthazar score is specific to pancreatic inflammation and does not provide information relevant to cholangitis.
Question 5: Retrocardiac lucency with air fluid level is seen in
- A. Distal esophageal obstruction
- B. Diaphragmatic eventration
- C. Hiatus hernia (Correct Answer)
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Hiatus hernia*** - A **hiatus hernia** occurs when part of the stomach protrudes into the chest through the **esophageal hiatus** of the diaphragm. - This can lead to a **retrocardiac lucency** (gas-filled stomach) with an **air-fluid level** visible on chest X-rays due to gastric contents. - The herniated gastric fundus appears as a characteristic gas bubble behind the heart, particularly well-seen on lateral chest radiographs. *Distal esophageal obstruction* - While distal esophageal obstruction can cause esophageal dilation and sometimes an **air-fluid level** within the esophagus, it generally presents as a tubular structure *behind* the heart rather than a distinct retrocardiac lucency representing a portion of the stomach. - The appearance would be more suggestive of a dilated esophagus filled with contents, not a herniated stomach. *Diaphragmatic eventration* - **Diaphragmatic eventration** is an abnormal elevation of a portion of the diaphragm, often due to congenital weakness or phrenic nerve paralysis. - It does not typically cause a **retrocardiac lucency** with an **air-fluid level**, as it involves the diaphragm itself rather than the herniation of an abdominal organ. - It may show elevation of the hemidiaphragm but without the characteristic gas-filled viscus appearance. *None of the options* - Hiatus hernia is a well-established radiological diagnosis for retrocardiac lucency with an **air-fluid level**, making this option clearly incorrect.
Question 6: The CT severity index in acute pancreatitis is described by:
- A. Balthazar score (Correct Answer)
- B. Mengini score
- C. Chapman score
- D. Napelon score
Explanation: ***Balthazar score*** - The **Balthazar score** (or CT severity index) is a widely used radiological grading system for assessing the severity of **acute pancreatitis** based on findings on computed tomography (CT) scans. It evaluates both pancreatic inflammation and necrosis. - The Balthazar score helps predict the clinical course and potential complications of pancreatitis by assigning points for **pancreatic inflammation** and the extent of **necrosis**. *Mengini score* - The **Mengini score** is not a recognized CT severity index specifically for acute pancreatitis. - This name is not associated with any established scoring system in gastroenterology. *Chapman score* - The **Chapman score** refers to specific somatic points used in **osteopathic manipulative medicine** for diagnosis and treatment, primarily related to lymphatic system dysfunction. - It has no relevance to the radiological assessment or severity grading of acute pancreatitis. *Napelon score* - The **Napelon score** does not exist as a recognized medical scoring system, particularly in the context of acute pancreatitis or medical imaging. - This name is likely a distractor and not associated with medical practice.
Question 7: All the following are true of craniopharyngioma except:
- A. Derived from Rathke's pouch
- B. Contains epithelial cells
- C. Causes visual disturbances
- D. Present in sella or infra-sellar location (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Present in sella or infra-sellar location*** - Craniopharyngiomas are typically located in the **suprasellar region**, above the **sella turcica**, where they can compress the optic chiasm. - While they can extend into the sella, their primary location is rarely exclusively intrasellar or infrasellar. *Derived from Rathke's pouch* - This statement is true; craniopharyngiomas arise from remnants of **Rathke's pouch**, the embryonic precursor of the anterior pituitary gland. - This origin explains their characteristic location near the pituitary stalk and third ventricle. *Contains epithelial cells* - This statement is true as **craniopharyngiomas** are benign **epithelial tumors**, specifically adamantinomatous or papillary types. - They are composed of stratified squamous epithelium, often with calcifications and cystic components. *Causes visual disturbances* - This statement is true because the **suprasellar location** of a craniopharyngioma often leads to compression of the **optic chiasm**, resulting in characteristic visual field deficits like bitemporal hemianopsia. - Visual disturbances are a common presenting symptom due to their proximity to the visual pathways.
Question 8: What is the best imaging view for assessing the nasal bone in X-ray?
- A. Lateral (Correct Answer)
- B. Towne's
- C. Submentovertical
- D. Caldwell
Explanation: ***Lateral*** - The **lateral view** provides a clear profile of the nasal bones, allowing for the best assessment of fractures, displacement, and angulation. - It visualizes the nasal bone in relation to other facial structures, which is crucial for treatment planning. *Towne's* - The **Towne's view** is primarily used to visualize the **occipital bone** and the **foramen magnum**, not the nasal bones. - It projects the petrous pyramids inferiorly, which would obstruct the view of the nasal region. *Caldwell* - The **Caldwell view** is primarily used to assess the **frontal sinuses**, **ethmoid sinuses**, and **orbits**. - While it offers some visualization of the nasal region, it does not provide the detailed lateral projection needed for optimal nasal bone assessment. *Submentovertical* - The **submentovertical view** (also known as the **basal view**) is primarily used to visualize the **base of the skull**, **sphenoid sinuses**, and **zygomatic arches**. - This view does not offer a direct or clear projection of the nasal bones themselves.
Question 9: The most accurate investigation for assessing ventricular function is:
- A. Multislice CT
- B. Echocardiography
- C. MRI (Correct Answer)
- D. Nuclear scan
Explanation: ***MRI*** - Cardiac MRI is considered the **gold standard** for assessing ventricular function, providing highly accurate and reproducible measurements of **ventricular volumes**, **ejection fraction**, and **myocardial mass**. - It offers excellent tissue characterization, allowing for direct visualization of **fibrosis**, **inflammation**, and other myocardial pathologies that can affect function. *Multislice CT* - While useful for assessing cardiac anatomy, particularly **coronary arteries**, Multislice CT involves **ionizing radiation** and has limitations in accurately assessing subtle changes in myocardial function compared to MRI. - Its strength lies more in **anatomical evaluation** (e.g., calcium scoring, coronary angiography) rather than detailed functional assessment. *Echocardiography* - Echocardiography is a widely available and useful first-line imaging modality for ventricular function, but it can be limited by **acoustic windows**, **operator dependency**, and **spatial resolution** compared to MRI. - While it provides good estimates of ejection fraction, particularly in simple cases, its 3D capabilities and tissue characterization are generally inferior to MRI. *Nuclear scan* - Nuclear scans (e.g., MUGA scans, SPECT) can assess ventricular function and myocardial perfusion, but they involve **ionizing radiation** and primarily provide **functional information** based on tracer uptake, not detailed structural or tissue characterization. - They are often used for evaluating **perfusion defects** and overall ejection fraction, but are less precise for detailed chamber quantification and tissue characterization than MRI.
Question 10: A chest X-ray shows bilateral lung infiltrates. What is the next best investigation?
- A. Sputum examination
- B. CT (Correct Answer)
- C. Bronchoscopy
- D. Echocardiography
Explanation: ***CT*** - A **CT scan (preferably HRCT)** provides a more detailed view of the lung parenchyma, allowing for better characterization of the infiltrates (e.g., location, pattern, presence of nodules, ground-glass opacities, or consolidation). - This detailed imagery is crucial for narrowing down the differential diagnosis and guiding further diagnostic or therapeutic interventions. - **CT is the best next investigation** for characterizing bilateral lung infiltrates seen on chest X-ray. *Sputum examination* - While important for identifying infectious causes, **sputum examination** is often only productive in certain types of pneumonia or infections and might not directly clarify the morphology or distribution of the infiltrates as a CT scan would. - It might be a subsequent step once the nature of the infiltrate is better understood through imaging. *Bronchoscopy* - **Bronchoscopy** is an invasive procedure generally reserved for cases where less invasive methods have failed to yield a diagnosis or when specific findings from imaging (like a CT scan) suggest the need for direct visualization, lavage, or biopsy. - It's not typically the immediate next step after identifying bilateral infiltrates on a chest X-ray. *Echocardiography* - **Echocardiography** is useful for evaluating cardiac causes of bilateral infiltrates (such as pulmonary edema from heart failure). - However, it does not directly visualize or characterize the lung parenchymal infiltrates themselves, making CT more valuable as the next investigation.