Biochemistry
1 questionsWhat is the effect of moderate alcohol consumption on lipid profiles in dyslipidemia?
NEET-PG 2013 - Biochemistry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 931: What is the effect of moderate alcohol consumption on lipid profiles in dyslipidemia?
- A. Decreased HDL levels
- B. Increased HDL levels (Correct Answer)
- C. Increased triglyceride levels
- D. Decreased LDL levels
Explanation: ***Increased HDL levels*** - Moderate alcohol consumption is known to **increase high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol levels**, which is often considered beneficial for cardiovascular health. - This effect is thought to be mediated by alcohol's influence on **hepatic lipoprotein metabolism**, leading to enhanced HDL production and reduced catabolism. *Decreased HDL levels* - This is incorrect, as multiple studies have consistently shown that **moderate alcohol consumption** tends to elevate, rather than decrease, HDL cholesterol. - Low HDL levels are associated with increased cardiovascular risk, making this effect an undesirable outcome that is not typical of moderate drinking. *Increased triglyceride levels* - While heavy or chronic alcohol consumption can lead to **increased triglyceride levels**, moderate intake typically has a neutral or only slightly elevated effect, if any, often overshadowed by the HDL increase. - Significant hypertriglyceridemia is a concern with **excessive alcohol use**, not usually with moderate consumption in healthy individuals. *Decreased LDL levels* - Moderate alcohol consumption generally has **little to no significant effect** on **low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol levels**, often referred to as "bad" cholesterol. - While HDL increases are observed, alcohol does not effectively lower LDL, which is a primary target in the management of dyslipidemia.
Dental
2 questionsIn Veau classification for cleft lip and palate, Type IV denotes
What is the treatment of choice for a post-operative abscess?
NEET-PG 2013 - Dental NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 931: In Veau classification for cleft lip and palate, Type IV denotes
- A. Bilateral cleft palate only
- B. Bilateral cleft lip only
- C. No cleft
- D. Bilateral cleft lip and palate (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Bilateral cleft lip and palate*** - Veau Type IV specifically classifies cases involving a **bilateral complete cleft of both the lip and the palate**. - This is the most severe form in the Veau classification system, indicating involvement of both sides of the primary and secondary palates. *Bilateral cleft palate only* - The Veau classification primarily focuses on cleft lip and palate, not isolated palatal clefts without lip involvement. - An isolated bilateral cleft palate is not directly classified as Type IV; rather, Veau Type IV includes lip involvement. *Bilateral cleft lip only* - Veau Type IV encompasses both lip and palatal involvement, not just a bilateral cleft lip alone. - A bilateral cleft lip without a concomitant cleft palate would be classified differently within the system (e.g., Veau Type III if affecting the entire primary palate bilaterally without complete secondary palate involvement). *No cleft* - The Veau classification system is designed to categorize the presence and extent of cleft deformities, not the absence of a cleft. - This option is contrary to the purpose of a classification system for anomalies.
Question 932: What is the treatment of choice for a post-operative abscess?
- A. Hydration
- B. IV antibiotics
- C. Image guided aspiration (Correct Answer)
- D. Reexploration
Explanation: ***Image-guided aspiration*** - This is often the **first-line treatment** for a post-operative abscess, especially if it is well-localized. - It involves **draining the pus** under imaging guidance, relieving pressure and removing the infectious material. *Hydration* - While important for overall patient management, especially in cases of infection or sepsis, **hydration alone does not treat an abscess**. - It is a supportive measure but does not address the **localized collection of pus**. *IV antibiotics* - Antibiotics are typically indicated as an **adjunct to drainage**, especially in cases of systemic infection or cellulitis. - However, **antibiotics alone are often insufficient** to resolve an abscess as they have difficulty penetrating the necrotic core and thick capsule. *Reexploration* - **Surgical reexploration** is a more invasive option usually reserved for abscesses that are **large, multiloculated, not amenable to percutaneous drainage**, or when initial drainage attempts fail. - It carries greater risks and is not the initial treatment of choice for every post-operative abscess.
Forensic Medicine
1 questionsMinamata disease is caused by toxicity of:
NEET-PG 2013 - Forensic Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 931: Minamata disease is caused by toxicity of:
- A. Arsenic
- B. Antimony
- C. Lead
- D. Mercury (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Mercury (Correct Answer)*** - Minamata disease is a severe neurological syndrome caused by **mercury poisoning**, specifically from the consumption of fish and shellfish contaminated with **methylmercury**. - The disease was first identified in Minamata Bay, Japan, resulting from the release of industrial wastewater containing methylmercury. - **Clinical features** include: ataxia, dysarthria, constriction of visual fields, sensory disturbances, and in severe cases, convulsions and death. *Arsenic (Incorrect)* - **Arsenic poisoning** is associated with symptoms like **garlic breath**, skin lesions (hyperkeratosis, Raindrop pigmentation), and neurological damage, but it does not cause Minamata disease. - Exposure typically occurs through contaminated water or occupational settings. *Antimony (Incorrect)* - **Antimony toxicity** can manifest with symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, cardiac arrhythmias, and skin inflammation. - It is not linked to the distinct neurological syndrome known as Minamata disease. *Lead (Incorrect)* - **Lead toxicity** (plumbism) primarily affects the nervous system, kidneys, and hematopoietic system, leading to symptoms like **abdominal pain**, **wrist drop/foot drop**, and anemia. - While it causes neurological damage, it has a different clinical presentation and is not associated with Minamata disease.
Internal Medicine
2 questionsUse of spironolactone in liver cirrhosis is
Metabolic change in severe vomiting is
NEET-PG 2013 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 931: Use of spironolactone in liver cirrhosis is
- A. Decrease edema (Correct Answer)
- B. May improve liver function indirectly
- C. May decrease afterload
- D. May decrease intravascular volume
Explanation: ***Decrease edema*** - Spironolactone is an **aldosterone antagonist** that blocks the effects of aldosterone, which is often elevated in liver cirrhosis. - By antagonizing aldosterone, spironolactone promotes **sodium and water excretion**, directly leading to a reduction in **ascites and peripheral edema** [1]. *May improve liver function indirectly* - While spironolactone manages complications of liver cirrhosis, it does **not directly improve liver function** or reverse liver damage. - Its primary role is in **symptom management**, particularly fluid retention, not in healing the underlying liver disease. *May decrease afterload* - Spironolactone's primary action is on the **kidneys** to promote diuresis; it is **not a vasodilator** and therefore does not directly decrease cardiac afterload. - Any effect on systemic vascular resistance would be minimal and secondary to volume changes rather than a direct vasodilatory property. *May decrease intravascular volume* - Spironolactone **decreases total body sodium and water**, leading to a reduction in extravascular fluid (edema and ascites) [1]. - While it decreases the total amount of fluid in the body, its main effect is on **extravascular volume**, and it's chosen over loop diuretics in cirrhosis to prevent **excessive intravascular depletion** which can worsen renal function.
Question 932: Metabolic change in severe vomiting is
- A. Metabolic alkalosis due to loss of gastric acid (Correct Answer)
- B. Respiratory alkalosis due to hyperventilation
- C. Hyperkalemia due to renal dysfunction
- D. Metabolic acidosis due to renal failure
Explanation: **Metabolic alkalosis due to loss of gastric acid** - Severe vomiting leads to the loss of **hydrochloric acid (HCl)** from the stomach, causing an increase in plasma bicarbonate and subsequently **metabolic alkalosis** [1], [3]. - This condition is often accompanied by **hypokalemia** due to renal compensation and increased aldosterone activity [1]. *Respiratory alkalosis due to hyperventilation* - **Hyperventilation** causes a decrease in arterial partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PaCO2), leading to **respiratory alkalosis** [2]. - While vomiting can sometimes cause mild hyperventilation due to discomfort, the primary metabolic derangement from severe vomiting is related to acid loss, not CO2 expulsion [4]. *Hyperkalemia due to renal dysfunction* - **Hyperkalemia** is an elevated potassium level, typically associated with **renal failure** or certain medications. - In severe vomiting, the loss of gastric fluid and subsequent fluid shifts tend to cause **hypokalemia** as the kidneys try to conserve hydrogen and excrete potassium [1]. *Metabolic acidosis due to renal failure* - **Metabolic acidosis** is characterized by a decrease in blood pH and bicarbonate, often caused by the accumulation of acids or loss of bicarbonate [3]. - **Renal failure** is a common cause of metabolic acidosis due to impaired acid excretion, which is not the primary issue in severe vomiting.
Pharmacology
1 questionsWhat is the drug of choice for the treatment of kala-azar?
NEET-PG 2013 - Pharmacology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 931: What is the drug of choice for the treatment of kala-azar?
- A. Amphotericin B
- B. Quinine
- C. Paromomycin
- D. Liposomal Amphotericin B (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Liposomal Amphotericin B*** - It is currently considered the **drug of choice** for treating **visceral leishmaniasis (kala-azar)** due to its high efficacy and better tolerability profile compared to conventional amphotericin B. - The **liposomal formulation** allows for targeted delivery to macrophages, where *Leishmania* parasites reside, reducing systemic toxicity. *Amphotericin B* - While effective against *Leishmania*, conventional **Amphotericin B deoxycholate** is associated with significant **nephrotoxicity** and other severe side effects. - It is generally reserved for cases where liposomal amphotericin B is unavailable or as an alternative in specific clinical situations. *Quinine* - **Quinine** is an **antimalarial drug** primarily used for the treatment of *Plasmodium falciparum* malaria. - It has no significant efficacy against *Leishmania* species, which are the causative agents of kala-azar. *Paromomycin* - **Paromomycin** is an **aminoglycoside antibiotic** that can be used as an alternative treatment for visceral leishmaniasis, especially in combination therapies. - Although effective, it is generally not considered the first-line **drug of choice** globally, and its efficacy can vary by region.
Psychiatry
1 questionsWhich of the following is not a typical symptom of Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy (DMD)?
NEET-PG 2013 - Psychiatry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 931: Which of the following is not a typical symptom of Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy (DMD)?
- A. Muscle pseudo hypertrophy
- B. Muscle weakness
- C. Tenderness in muscles (Correct Answer)
- D. Cardiomyopathy
- E. Gower's sign
Explanation: ***Tenderness in muscles*** - **Muscle tenderness** and pain are **not typical primary symptoms** of Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy (DMD); the disease is characterized by progressive muscle weakness without significant pain. - While some discomfort might arise from muscle spasms or joint issues, widespread tenderness is characteristic of inflammatory conditions, not DMD. *Muscle pseudo hypertrophy* - **Pseudohypertrophy**, particularly in the calves, is a **hallmark sign** of DMD, caused by the replacement of muscle tissue with fat and connective tissue, making the muscles appear larger but weaker. - This symptom reflects the underlying muscle degeneration in DMD. *Muscle weakness* - **Progressive muscle weakness** is the defining characteristic of DMD, typically starting in the proximal muscles and leading to significant functional impairment. - This weakness is due to the lack of **dystrophin**, which is crucial for muscle fiber integrity. *Cardiomyopathy* - **Cardiomyopathy** is a **common and serious complication** of DMD, affecting nearly all patients by adolescence or early adulthood due to the absence of dystrophin in cardiac muscle. - It often manifests as **dilated cardiomyopathy**, contributing significantly to morbidity and mortality. *Gower's sign* - **Gower's sign** is a **classic clinical manifestation** of DMD, where the child uses their hands to "walk up" their legs when rising from the floor due to proximal muscle weakness. - This sign typically appears early in the disease course and is a key diagnostic indicator.
Surgery
2 questionsWhich of the following is an example of a clean surgery?
Best approach for emergency thoracotomy in acute thoracic trauma is
NEET-PG 2013 - Surgery NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 931: Which of the following is an example of a clean surgery?
- A. Hernia surgery (Correct Answer)
- B. Cholecystectomy
- C. Rectal surgery
- D. Gastric surgery
Explanation: ***Hernia surgery*** - **Clean surgeries** involve no entry into hollow viscera (e.g., gastrointestinal, genitourinary, or respiratory tract) and are characterized by **no inflammation** or infection. Hernia repair typically fits this description. - The risk of **surgical site infection** (SSI) is usually less than 2% in clean cases, making it a benchmark for surgical infection control. *Gastric surgery* - This involves entry into the **gastrointestinal tract**, which is considered a **contaminated** or **clean-contaminated** procedure due to the presence of bacteria. - The risk of infection is higher than in clean surgeries, often requiring prophylactic antibiotics. *Cholecystectomy* - This procedure involves the **gallbladder**, which is part of the biliary system, often considered a **clean-contaminated** wound if bile spills or if there's no evidence of active infection. - If performed for **acute cholecystitis** (inflammation/infection), it would be classified as **contaminated** or **dirty**. *Rectal surgery* - This involves the **rectum**, which is part of the lower **gastrointestinal tract** and contains a high bacterial load. - Procedures involving the rectum are classified as **contaminated** or **dirty** due to the high risk of bacterial contamination.
Question 932: Best approach for emergency thoracotomy in acute thoracic trauma is
- A. Midline sternotomy
- B. Parasternal thoracotomy
- C. Anterolateral thoracotomy (Correct Answer)
- D. Posterolateral thoracotomy
Explanation: ***Anterolateral thoracotomy*** - Provides **rapid access** to the chest cavity for emergent situations, such as **cardiac tamponade** or **massive hemorrhage**, which are common in thoracic trauma. - Allows assessment and management of injuries to the **heart, great vessels, and lungs** with minimal repositioning in a critically ill patient. *Midline sternotomy* - Primarily used for **cardiac surgery**, offering excellent exposure to the mediastinum but is less ideal for general thoracic trauma with potential lateral injuries. - Takes **longer to perform** than an anterolateral approach and may not be suitable in an emergent, unstable trauma setting. *Parasternal thoracotomy* - Offers more limited access compared to other approaches, typically used for specific, localized procedures near the sternum. - Does not provide the **broad exposure** needed to manage the diverse and potentially widespread injuries seen in severe thoracic trauma. *Posterolateral thoracotomy* - Provides excellent exposure to the **posterior mediastinum, spine, and descending aorta**, but requires the patient to be in the lateral decubitus position. - Repositioning a severely injured trauma patient for this approach is often **impractical and time-consuming**, making it unsuitable for initial resuscitation.