Anatomy
1 questionsWhich is the earliest secondary ossification center to develop chronologically?
NEET-PG 2013 - Anatomy NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 711: Which is the earliest secondary ossification center to develop chronologically?
- A. Lower end of femur (Correct Answer)
- B. Upper end of humerus
- C. Lower end of fibula
- D. Upper end of tibia
Explanation: ***Lower end of femur*** - The **distal femoral epiphysis** is typically the first secondary ossification center to appear, often present at birth or shortly before [1]. - Its presence at birth is an indicator of **fetal maturity**, making it a key developmental landmark [1]. *Upper end of humerus* - The **proximal humeral epiphysis** typically ossifies around 6 months of age, significantly later than the distal femur. - This center contributes to the growth of the humeral head and greater tubercle. *Lower end of fibula* - The **distal fibular epiphysis** appears around the first year of life, after both the distal femur and proximal humerus. - It forms part of the ankle joint and contributes to its stability. *Upper end of tibia* - The **proximal tibial epiphysis** typically ossifies around 6-12 months of age, well after the distal femur. - This center is crucial for the growth of the upper tibia and knee joint development.
Community Medicine
1 questionsTo achieve neonatal tetanus elimination, the incidence of neonatal tetanus per 1000 live births should be reduced to less than:
NEET-PG 2013 - Community Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 711: To achieve neonatal tetanus elimination, the incidence of neonatal tetanus per 1000 live births should be reduced to less than:
- A. 0.1
- B. 0.5
- C. 1.0 (Correct Answer)
- D. 0.2
Explanation: ***1.0*** - The international target for **neonatal tetanus elimination (NTE)** as defined by WHO/UNICEF is an incidence rate of **less than 1 case per 1,000 live births per year** in every district of a country. - This is the globally recognized threshold for declaring that neonatal tetanus has been eliminated as a public health problem. - Countries achieving this target at the district level are considered to have achieved NTE. *0.1* - While 0.1 per 1,000 live births represents an extremely low incidence, this is not the WHO-defined threshold for **neonatal tetanus elimination**. - The elimination target is less stringent at <1 per 1,000 live births, making disease control achievable while still representing a major public health success. *0.2* - An incidence of 0.2 per 1,000 live births, though very low, is not the internationally recognized threshold for **neonatal tetanus elimination**. - The established WHO/UNICEF target is <1 per 1,000 live births in every district. *0.5* - An incidence of 0.5 per 1,000 live births indicates excellent control of neonatal tetanus but is not the specific cut-off value. - The WHO criterion for elimination is less than 1 case per 1,000 live births per year at the district level.
Forensic Medicine
3 questionsThe doctrine of res ipsa loquitur means:
What does testamentary capacity refer to?
Cheilography is the study of ?
NEET-PG 2013 - Forensic Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 711: The doctrine of res ipsa loquitur means:
- A. Medical misoccurrence
- B. Fact speaks for itself (Correct Answer)
- C. Oral evidence
- D. Common knowledge
Explanation: ***Fact speaks for itself*** - **Res ipsa loquitur** is a legal doctrine meaning "the thing speaks for itself," implying that the **occurrence of an accident itself** is sufficient evidence of negligence. - This doctrine is applied when the incident could only have occurred due to **negligence** and the defendant had exclusive control over the instrumentality causing the injury. *Common knowledge* - While sometimes aligned with situations where res ipsa loquitur applies (i.e., negligence is obvious), "common knowledge" is not a direct translation or comprehensive definition of the Latin phrase. - The doctrine requires more than general understanding; it specifically refers to the **evidentiary inference** of negligence from the event itself. *Medical misoccurrence* - This term refers to an **unintended harmful event** during medical treatment, which might be a consequence of negligence, but it is not the meaning of res ipsa loquitur. - Res ipsa loquitur is a **legal principle** used to establish negligence in such cases, rather than a description of the event itself. *Oral evidence* - **Oral evidence** refers to testimony given verbally in court by witnesses, which is a type of evidence. - Res ipsa loquitur, in contrast, is a **rule of evidence** that allows for an inference of negligence without direct testimony pointing to specific negligent acts.
Question 712: What does testamentary capacity refer to?
- A. None of the options
- B. Ability to make a valid will (Correct Answer)
- C. Ability to create a will
- D. Ability to understand legal documents
Explanation: ***Ability to make a valid will*** - **Testamentary capacity** specifically refers to the legal and mental competence required to create a legally binding **last will and testament**. - It ensures that the testator understands the nature of the act, the extent of their property, and the natural objects of their bounty (i.e., those who would reasonably expect to inherit). *Ability to create a will* - While related, this option is too broad; it doesn't emphasize the **legal validity** or the specific cognitive requirements involved in the process. - Simply "creating" a will may involve just writing it down, but it doesn't guarantee the **mental capacity** needed for it to be enforceable. *Ability to understand legal documents* - This is a general cognitive ability that is necessary but insufficient to define **testamentary capacity**. - A person might understand legal documents generally but lack the specific awareness of their assets or beneficiaries required for a valid will at a given time. *None of the options* - This is incorrect because the first option accurately describes **testamentary capacity**.
Question 713: Cheilography is the study of ?
- A. Finger prints
- B. Lip prints (Correct Answer)
- C. Breath analysis
- D. Foot prints
Explanation: ***Lip prints:*** - **Cheiloscopy**, or cheilography, is the forensic study of **lip prints** for individual identification. - Just like fingerprints, lip prints are unique to each individual and can be used as evidence. *Finger prints:* - The study of **fingerprints** is known as **dermatoglyphics** or dactyloscopy, not cheilography. - Fingerprints are commonly used in forensic science due to their unique ridge patterns. *Breath analysis:* - **Breath analysis** typically involves examining exhaled air for substances like alcohol or gases, used for diagnostic or forensic purposes. - This field is known as **breathomics** or clinical breath testing, not cheilography. *Foot prints:* - The examination of **footprints** is known as **podoscopy** or **pedobarography**, used in forensics and biomechanics. - Footprints provide information about an individual's gait and foot structure.
Internal Medicine
1 questionsWaterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome is seen in:
NEET-PG 2013 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 711: Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome is seen in:
- A. Neisseria meningitidis (Correct Answer)
- B. Yersinia
- C. Pseudomonas
- D. Pneumococci
Explanation: ***Neisseria meningitidis*** - **Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome** is a severe complication of **meningococcal sepsis**, predominantly caused by *Neisseria meningitidis* [1]. - It is characterized by **adrenal gland hemorrhage**, leading to acute adrenal insufficiency, hemorrhagic skin rash, and shock [1]. *Pseudomonas* - While *Pseudomonas aeruginosa* can cause severe infections, including sepsis, it is **not typically associated** with Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome. - *Pseudomonas* infections often lead to **ecthyma gangrenosum** in immunocompromised patients, a different dermatological manifestation. *Yersinia* - *Yersinia* species can cause various infections, such as **yersiniosis** (gastroenteritis) and **plague** (*Yersinia pestis*). - These infections do not commonly present with the distinct features of **adrenal hemorrhage** and **fulminant sepsis** seen in Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome. *Pneumococci* - *Streptococcus pneumoniae* (**pneumococci**) is a common cause of **meningitis** and **sepsis**, especially in children and the elderly. - Although it can lead to severe bloodstream infections, it is **rarely specifically linked** to the adrenal hemorrhage syndrome known as Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome.
Microbiology
1 questionsWhat is the infective form of Trypanosoma brucei?
NEET-PG 2013 - Microbiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 711: What is the infective form of Trypanosoma brucei?
- A. Trypomastigote (Correct Answer)
- B. Amastigote form
- C. Egg stage
- D. No infective form
Explanation: ***Trypomastigote*** - The **trypomastigote** is the infective form of *Trypanosoma brucei* transmitted to humans by the **tsetse fly** bite. - In the human host, trypomastigotes multiply in the **blood and lymphatic system**, eventually invading the central nervous system. *Amastigote form* - The **amastigote** form is characteristic of *Trypanosoma cruzi* and *Leishmania* species, not *Trypanosoma brucei*. - **Amastigotes** are found intracellularly and lack a flagellum, responsible for replication within host cells for these other parasites. *Egg stage* - *Trypanosoma brucei* is a **protozoan parasite** and does not have an **egg stage** in its life cycle. - Egg stages are typical for helminths, such as **tapeworms** or **flukes**. *No infective form* - This statement is incorrect; **all parasitic organisms** must have an infective stage to be transmitted to their hosts. - The **trypomastigote** is specifically adapted for transmission and survival in the human host and vector.
Pediatrics
1 questionsWhich immunization is typically given at 6 months of age?
NEET-PG 2013 - Pediatrics NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 711: Which immunization is typically given at 6 months of age?
- A. Measles vaccine
- B. DPT vaccine (Correct Answer)
- C. BCG vaccine
- D. None of the options
Explanation: **DPT vaccine** - The DPT (diphtheria, pertussis, and tetanus) vaccine is administered in multiple doses during infancy as part of the primary immunization series. - At **6 months of age**, the **third dose of DPT** is typically given (following doses at 6 weeks, 10 weeks, and 14 weeks according to the Indian immunization schedule). - Among the options provided, DPT is the only vaccine routinely administered at 6 months of age. - This vaccine protects against three serious bacterial infections: **diphtheria**, which can cause breathing problems; **pertussis (whooping cough)**, a severe respiratory illness; and **tetanus**, which causes painful muscle spasms. *Measles vaccine* - The measles vaccine (given as part of the **MMR vaccine** or as MR vaccine in India) is typically administered at **9 to 12 months of age** for the first dose, and a second dose between 15-18 months or 4-6 years. - It is not routinely given at 6 months, as maternal antibodies can interfere with its effectiveness at this younger age. *BCG vaccine* - The BCG (Bacillus Calmette-Guérin) vaccine protects against **tuberculosis** and is given at **birth** or in early infancy as a single dose. - It is not administered at 6 months of age. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because the **DPT vaccine** (third dose) is a standard immunization given at 6 months of age according to the Indian immunization schedule. - Multiple vaccines are actually given at 6 months (including OPV, Hepatitis B, Hib, PCV), but among the listed options, only DPT is correct.
Pharmacology
1 questionsWhat is the appropriate diluent for the BCG vaccine?
NEET-PG 2013 - Pharmacology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 711: What is the appropriate diluent for the BCG vaccine?
- A. Sterile normal saline
- B. Sterile distilled water (Correct Answer)
- C. Sterile dextrose solution
- D. Colloid solutions
Explanation: ***Sterile distilled water*** - **Sterile distilled water** is the recommended diluent for the **BCG vaccine** to ensure proper reconstitution and antigen stability. - Using the correct diluent is critical for maintaining the **efficacy** and safety of the vaccine. *Sterile normal saline* - **Sterile normal saline** (0.9% NaCl) can be used as a diluent for some vaccines, but it is **not appropriate for BCG** as it can negatively impact vaccine viability. - The **salt concentration** in saline can affect the live attenuated organisms in the BCG vaccine. *Sterile dextrose solution* - **Dextrose solutions** are generally avoided as vaccine diluents due to their potential to support **bacterial growth** or alter vaccine stability. - They are primarily used for **intravenous fluid administration** and not for vaccine reconstitution. *Colloid solutions* - **Colloid solutions** like albumin or dextran are never used as vaccine diluents as they can interfere with the **vaccine antigens** and cause adverse reactions. - These solutions are typically used for **plasma volume expansion** and have no role in vaccine preparation.
Surgery
1 questionsMost common organ involved in air blast injury is?
NEET-PG 2013 - Surgery NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 711: Most common organ involved in air blast injury is?
- A. Ear drum (Correct Answer)
- B. Stomach
- C. Eye
- D. Lung
Explanation: ***Ear drum*** - The **tympanic membrane (eardrum)** is highly sensitive to changes in pressure, making it the most vulnerable and frequently injured organ during **air blast events**. - Its delicate structure can easily rupture due to the sudden, immense pressure wave. *Stomach* - While blast injuries can affect the gastrointestinal tract, causing conditions like **bowel perforation**, the stomach is less commonly and directly impacted than the eardrum. - Gastrointestinal injury usually results from a combination of **blast waves** and secondary effects like **fragmentation**. *Eye* - Eye injuries from blasts often involve **foreign bodies**, **ocular trauma**, or **thermal burns**, but direct **barotrauma** to the eye itself is less common than eardrum rupture. - The eye is somewhat protected by the bony orbit, offering a degree of shielding from direct blast effects. *Lung* - **Blast lung injury** is a serious, life-threatening condition involving pulmonary contusions, hemorrhage, and rupture of alveoli. - While significant, it is generally considered less frequent than eardrum perforation in overall blast injury cases.