Community Medicine
6 questionsIn the context of disease screening, which type of lead time is most beneficial for effective screening?
What is the annual infection rate of tuberculosis?
India started 2-dose vaccination strategy for measles, in -
Which of the following statements about incidence is false?
Which of the following is the primary component of the AFP (Acute Flaccid Paralysis) case definition used in polio surveillance?
Malaria is transmitted in Rural areas by?
NEET-PG 2013 - Community Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 541: In the context of disease screening, which type of lead time is most beneficial for effective screening?
- A. Short lead time
- B. Both short and long lead times are beneficial
- C. Long lead time is beneficial for screening (Correct Answer)
- D. Lead time has no impact on screening effectiveness
Explanation: ***Long lead time is beneficial for screening*** - **Long lead time** provides a greater window of opportunity between disease detection by screening and clinical symptom onset - This extended asymptomatic detectable phase allows for **early intervention** when treatments are most effective - Longer lead time correlates with improved prognosis and potential prevention of severe outcomes - Essential criterion for effective screening programs per **Wilson-Jungner criteria** *Short lead time* - Limited time between disease detectability and clinical symptoms - Reduces screening effectiveness as disease progresses rapidly - Minimal opportunity for beneficial early intervention *Both short and long lead times are beneficial* - Only **long lead time** is beneficial for screening programs - Short lead time actually limits screening effectiveness - Screening benefit is directly proportional to duration of asymptomatic detectable phase *Lead time has no impact on screening effectiveness* - **Lead time is crucial** for determining screening program effectiveness - Directly impacts the window for early detection and intervention - Without adequate lead time, screening loses its preventive value
Question 542: What is the annual infection rate of tuberculosis?
- A. Percentage of total patients positive for tuberculin test
- B. Percentage of new patients positive for tuberculin test (Correct Answer)
- C. Percentage of sputum positive total patients
- D. Percentage of sputum positive new patients
Explanation: ***Percentage of new patients positive for tuberculin test*** - The **annual infection rate of tuberculosis (AIRT)** is defined as the percentage of individuals (typically children aged 1-9 years) who show **tuberculin conversion** (from negative to positive) in a given year. - Among the given options, this is the **closest representation** as it focuses on **newly infected individuals** rather than prevalent cases. - AIRT is a key epidemiological indicator reflecting **ongoing transmission** and the **annual risk of tuberculous infection** in a community. - This measure helps assess TB control program effectiveness and disease burden. *Percentage of total patients positive for tuberculin test* - This represents the **prevalence of tuberculosis infection** in the population, including both old and new infections. - It does not specifically measure the **annual rate of acquiring new infections**, which is what AIRT captures. *Percentage of sputum positive total patients* - This indicates the **prevalence of active, infectious pulmonary tuberculosis** in a population. - It refers to individuals with **active TB disease** who are shedding bacteria in sputum, not latent infection detected by tuberculin testing. *Percentage of sputum positive new patients* - This represents the **incidence of new, active, infectious tuberculosis cases** (case detection rate). - While important for TB surveillance, it measures **active disease** rather than **infection rate** detected by tuberculin skin test.
Question 543: India started 2-dose vaccination strategy for measles, in -
- A. 2008
- B. 2009
- C. 2010 (Correct Answer)
- D. 2011
Explanation: ***2010*** - India implemented the **two-dose measles vaccination strategy** as part of its Universal Immunization Program starting in **2010**. - This decision was based on recommendations to improve immunity and reduce measles incidence, moving from a single-dose to a more effective **two-dose schedule**. *2008* - While important immunization initiatives were ongoing, the specific policy of a **two-dose measles vaccination strategy** had not yet been introduced in India during 2008. - At this time, the focus was primarily on ensuring high coverage of the **first dose** of measles vaccine. *2009* - The year 2009 saw continued efforts to strengthen the Universal Immunization Program, but the official launch of the **two-dose measles vaccination strategy** in India occurred later. - Discussions and planning for the transition were likely underway, but implementation began in the subsequent year. *2011* - By 2011, the **two-dose measles vaccination strategy** was already being implemented across India, having been introduced in 2010. - This year marked a period of expanding coverage and consolidation of the new 2-dose schedule rather than its initial introduction.
Question 544: Which of the following statements about incidence is false?
- A. Does not include unit of time (Correct Answer)
- B. It is a rate
- C. Numerator includes new cases
- D. Denominator includes population at risk
Explanation: ***Does not include unit of time*** - This statement is false because **incidence** is defined as the number of **new cases** of a disease over a specific period of time in a population at risk. - Therefore, it inherently includes a **unit of time** (e.g., per year, per month), making this option incorrect as a characteristic of incidence. *It is a rate* - **Incidence is a rate** because it quantifies the speed at which new cases of a disease occur within a population. - It expresses the number of new events (cases) per unit of population at risk over a specified time period. *Numerator includes new cases* - The **numerator of incidence** specifically counts the number of **new cases** of a disease that develop during a defined observation period. - This distinguishes it from prevalence, which includes all existing cases. *Denominator includes population at risk* - The **denominator for incidence** comprises the **population at risk** of developing the disease during the observation period. - Individuals who already have the disease or are immune are typically excluded from the denominator.
Question 545: Which of the following is the primary component of the AFP (Acute Flaccid Paralysis) case definition used in polio surveillance?
- A. All of the above
- B. Stool specimen positive for poliovirus
- C. Onset of acute flaccid paralysis (Correct Answer)
- D. Presence of residual paralysis after 60 days
Explanation: ***Onset of acute flaccid paralysis*** - The primary component of the **AFP case definition** for polio surveillance is the acute onset of **flaccid paralysis** in a child under 15 years, or paralytic illness in a person of any age when polio is suspected. - This definition is crucial for identifying all potential cases of polio, regardless of the cause, to ensure thorough investigation and prevent outbreaks. *Stool specimen positive for poliovirus* - A positive stool specimen for poliovirus is a **laboratory confirmation** of polio infection, but it is not the primary component of the initial case definition. - The AFP case definition aims for **high sensitivity** to capture all possible cases for investigation, even before laboratory results are available. *Presence of residual paralysis after 60 days* - Residual paralysis after 60 days is an important indicator for **classifying a confirmed polio case** and understanding the long-term impact. - However, it is a **follow-up criterion** used after the initial detection of AFP, not the primary component that triggers the initial surveillance. *All of the above* - While laboratory confirmation and residual paralysis provide further information about a case, the **initial identification relies specifically on the clinical presentation** of acute flaccid paralysis. - The broad clinical definition ensures that no potential polio case is missed, initiating an immediate public health response.
Question 546: Malaria is transmitted in Rural areas by?
- A. Anopheles stephensi
- B. Anopheles dirus
- C. Anopheles culicifacies (Correct Answer)
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Anopheles culicifacies*** - **_Anopheles culicifacies_** is the **primary vector of malaria in rural areas of India** and is also found in Southeast Asia. - Its breeding habitats often include **rice fields, irrigation channels, and temporary water collections** common in rural agricultural settings. - It accounts for a major proportion of rural malaria transmission in the Indian subcontinent. *Anopheles stephensi* - **_Anopheles stephensi_** is a significant malaria vector primarily found in **urban and semi-urban areas**, including parts of the Middle East, India, and Iran. - Its preferred breeding sites are **artificial containers found in urban environments**, such as water storage tanks, overhead tanks, and cisterns. *Anopheles dirus* - **_Anopheles dirus_** is a dominant malaria vector in **forested and hilly regions of Southeast Asia**, often associated with forest malaria. - It's known for outdoor feeding behavior and maintaining transmission in relatively undisturbed natural environments. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **_Anopheles culicifacies_** is a well-established and significant vector for malaria in rural areas of India. - Identification of a specific primary vector for rural transmission makes this choice invalid.
Obstetrics and Gynecology
1 questionsWhich vaccine is contraindicated in pregnancy?
NEET-PG 2013 - Obstetrics and Gynecology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 541: Which vaccine is contraindicated in pregnancy?
- A. Cholera vaccine
- B. Typhoid vaccine
- C. Meningococcal vaccine
- D. Measles vaccine (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Measles vaccine*** - The measles vaccine is a **live attenuated vaccine**, which carries a theoretical risk of causing infection in the fetus. - Live vaccines are generally **contraindicated during pregnancy** due to this potential risk of congenital infection. *Cholera vaccine* - The cholera vaccine is generally considered **safe during pregnancy** if indicated, especially for travel to endemic areas. - While administration in pregnancy should be based on risk-benefit, it is not consistently contraindicated like live vaccines. *Typhoid vaccine* - Both inactivated and live attenuated typhoid vaccines are available; the **inactivated (killed) vaccine** is generally preferred if vaccination is necessary during pregnancy. - The risks of the disease usually outweigh the vaccine risks, and it is not a universal contraindication. *Meningococcal vaccine* - **Meningococcal vaccines** are generally considered safe and can be administered during pregnancy if there is a significant risk of exposure or during outbreaks. - The benefits of maternal and potential fetal protection from meningococcal disease outweigh theoretical risks.
Pediatrics
1 questionsIdeal temperature for DPT storage?
NEET-PG 2013 - Pediatrics NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 541: Ideal temperature for DPT storage?
- A. Room temperature
- B. 4 to 8°C (Correct Answer)
- C. 0 to - 20°C
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***4 to 8°C*** - The ideal temperature for DPT (diphtheria, pertussis, tetanus) vaccine storage is between **+2°C and +8°C** (or 35°F and 46°F), which is the standard refrigerator temperature range. - This temperature range is crucial for maintaining the **potency** and **efficacy** of the vaccine, preventing **degradation** due to excessive heat or cold. *Room temperature* - Storing DPT vaccines at **room temperature** (typically 20-25°C or 68-77°F) for extended periods can lead to a **loss of potency** as heat can degrade vaccine components. - While short-term excursions within this range might be permissible under specific conditions (e.g., during transport), it is not the ideal long-term storage solution. *0 to - 20°C* - DPT vaccines, particularly the **whole-cell pertussis (wP)** component, can be **damaged by freezing**. - Temperatures below 0°C can cause the **adjuvant** (usually aluminum salt) to separate, leading to a loss of efficacy and potential local reactions at the injection site. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **4 to 8°C** is indeed the established and recommended ideal storage temperature for DPT vaccines.
Pharmacology
2 questionsWhat is Hydroxyethyl starch?
All of the following are adverse effects of nicotinic acid except:
NEET-PG 2013 - Pharmacology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 541: What is Hydroxyethyl starch?
- A. Vasodilator
- B. Inotrope
- C. Plasma expander (Correct Answer)
- D. Diuretic
Explanation: ***Plasma expander*** - **Hydroxyethyl starch** is a **colloid solution** used intravenously to increase plasma volume and maintain oncotic pressure. - It is often used in situations of **hypovolemia** or shock to support circulation. *Vasodilator* - A **vasodilator** is a medication that widens blood vessels, typically used to lower blood pressure or improve blood flow. - Hydroxyethyl starch does not directly cause **vasodilation** as its primary mechanism of action. *Inotrope* - An **inotrope** is an agent that alters the force or energy of muscular contractions, mainly affecting the heart's contractility. - Hydroxyethyl starch has no direct effect on **myocardial contractility**. *Diuretic* - A **diuretic** is a substance that promotes increased production of urine, thereby increasing the excretion of water from the body. - While fluid administration can temporarily increase urine output, hydroxyethyl starch is not classified as a **diuretic agent** itself.
Question 542: All of the following are adverse effects of nicotinic acid except:
- A. Liver dysfunction
- B. Vasodilation
- C. Hyperpigmentation
- D. Pancreatitis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Pancreatitis*** - **Pancreatitis** is not a commonly reported adverse effect of nicotinic acid (niacin) therapy. - While other gastrointestinal side effects like nausea and vomiting can occur, pancreatic inflammation is not characteristic. *Vasodilation* - **Cutaneous flushing** and **vasodilation** are very common adverse effects of nicotinic acid, mediated by prostaglandin release. - This effect can cause a sensation of warmth, redness, and itching, especially at the start of therapy. *Liver dysfunction* - **Liver dysfunction**, including elevated liver enzymes and rare cases of **hepatotoxicity**, can occur with high doses of nicotinic acid. - Regular monitoring of liver function tests is recommended for patients on niacin therapy. *Hyperpigmentation* - **Hyperpigmentation**, particularly **acanthosis nigricans**, is a known cutaneous side effect of nicotinic acid. - This typically presents as dark, velvety patches on the skin, especially in skin fold areas.