Anatomy
1 questionsAll of the following muscles have dual nerve supply except which one?
NEET-PG 2013 - Anatomy NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 421: All of the following muscles have dual nerve supply except which one?
- A. Pectoralis major
- B. Flexor digitorum profundus
- C. Biceps brachii (Correct Answer)
- D. Subscapularis
Explanation: ***Biceps brachii*** - The **biceps brachii** muscle is solely innervated by the **musculocutaneous nerve (C5, C6, C7)**. - This muscle is a prime mover for forearm supination and elbow flexion and does not receive nerve supply from any other nerve. *Subscapularis* - The **subscapularis** muscle has a dual nerve supply from both the **upper and lower subscapular nerves (C5, C6)**. - This dual innervation ensures motor control of the subscapularis, which is an important medial rotator of the humerus. *Pectoralis major* - The **pectoralis major** muscle receives a dual nerve supply from both the **medial and lateral pectoral nerves** [1]. - The **lateral pectoral nerve** primarily supplies the clavicular head, while the **medial pectoral nerve** supplies both the sternocostal head and a portion of the clavicular head [1]. *Flexor digitorum profundus* - The **flexor digitorum profundus** muscle has a dual nerve supply from the **median nerve** (innervating the lateral half for digits 2 and 3) and the **ulnar nerve** (innervating the medial half for digits 4 and 5). - This dual innervation allows for independent or coordinated flexion of the distal phalanges of the fingers.
Biochemistry
7 questionsCatecholamines are synthesized from?
Which of the following amino acids is not involved in the production of creatine?
Which amino acids accumulate in maple syrup urine disease?
Sweaty feet odor in urine is seen in which condition?
Rate limiting step in pyrimidine synthesis?
Hereditary orotic aciduria Type-I is due to deficiency of?
Which of the following molecular interactions are found in the structure of DNA?
NEET-PG 2013 - Biochemistry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 421: Catecholamines are synthesized from?
- A. Tyrosine (Correct Answer)
- B. Histidine
- C. Methionine
- D. Tryptophan
Explanation: ***Tyrosine*** - **Tyrosine** is the direct precursor amino acid for the synthesis of all **catecholamines**, including **dopamine**, **norepinephrine**, and **epinephrine**. - The synthesis pathway begins with the conversion of tyrosine to **L-DOPA** by tyrosine hydroxylase, followed by subsequent enzymatic steps. *Methionine* - **Methionine** is an essential amino acid primarily involved in **protein synthesis** and as a precursor for S-adenosylmethionine (SAM), a key methyl donor in various metabolic reactions. - It is not a direct precursor for the synthesis of **catecholamines**. *Histidine* - **Histidine** is the precursor for the synthesis of **histamine**, a neurotransmitter and inflammatory mediator. - It is not involved in the biosynthesis pathway of **catecholamines**. *Tryptophan* - **Tryptophan** is the precursor for the synthesis of **serotonin** and **melatonin**, important neurotransmitters and hormones. - It does not play a role in the synthesis of **catecholamines**.
Question 422: Which of the following amino acids is not involved in the production of creatine?
- A. Glycine
- B. Methionine
- C. Alanine (Correct Answer)
- D. Arginine
Explanation: ***Alanine*** - **Alanine** is not directly involved as a precursor for **creatine synthesis**. It can be converted to pyruvate and enter the gluconeogenic pathway. - The primary amino acids involved in **creatine synthesis** are arginine, glycine, and methionine. *Glycine* - **Glycine** is a direct precursor for creatine, reacting with arginine in the first step of its synthesis to form **guanidinoacetate**. - This reaction is catalyzed by **arginine:glycine amidinotransferase (AGAT)**. *Methionine* - **Methionine**, in the form of **S-adenosylmethionine (SAM)**, acts as the methyl donor in the second step of creatine synthesis. - It methylates guanidinoacetate to form **creatine**, a reaction catalyzed by **guanidinoacetate methyltransferase (GAMT)**. *Arginine* - **Arginine** donates its guanidino group to glycine, forming **guanidinoacetate**, the initial intermediate in creatine synthesis. - This is the first committed step in the **creatine biosynthesis pathway**.
Question 423: Which amino acids accumulate in maple syrup urine disease?
- A. Valine
- B. Leucine
- C. Isoleucine
- D. All branched-chain amino acids (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***All branched-chain amino acids*** - Maple syrup urine disease (MSUD) is characterized by a deficiency in the **branched-chain alpha-keto acid dehydrogenase complex**, which is responsible for the breakdown of branched-chain amino acids (BCAAs). - This deficiency leads to the accumulation of **leucine, isoleucine, and valine**, along with their corresponding alpha-keto acids, in the blood and urine. - The distinctive **maple syrup odor** in the urine is caused by the accumulation of branched-chain keto acids derived from all three BCAAs. *Leucine* - While leucine is one of the BCAAs that accumulates in MSUD, it is not the *only* amino acid involved. - The accumulation of **leucine** is particularly associated with the severe neurological symptoms seen in MSUD, as it is the most neurotoxic of the three BCAAs. *Valine* - Valine is another BCAA that accumulates due to the metabolic block in MSUD. - However, the disease involves the accumulation of all three BCAAs, not just valine in isolation. *Isoleucine* - Isoleucine is the third BCAA that accumulates in MSUD due to the defective enzyme. - Like leucine and valine, isoleucine and its corresponding keto acid accumulate in blood and urine when the branched-chain alpha-keto acid dehydrogenase complex is deficient.
Question 424: Sweaty feet odor in urine is seen in which condition?
- A. Phenylketonuria
- B. Isovaleric acidemia (Correct Answer)
- C. Alkaptonuria
- D. Maple syrup urine disease
Explanation: ***Isovaleric acidemia*** - This condition is characterized by a distinctive "sweaty feet" odor in body fluids, including urine, due to the accumulation of **isovaleric acid**. - It results from a deficiency in the enzyme **isovaleryl-CoA dehydrogenase**, which is crucial for leucine metabolism. *Phenylketonuria* - Patients with **phenylketonuria (PKU)** typically have a "mousy" or "musty" odor in their urine, not a sweaty feet smell. - This is due to the accumulation of **phenylalanine** and its metabolites. *Maple syrup urine disease* - This metabolic disorder is named for the characteristic sweet, maple syrup-like odor of the urine, which is distinctly different from a sweaty feet odor. - It is caused by a defect in the metabolism of **branched-chain amino acids (leucine, isoleucine, and valine)**. *Alkaptonuria* - This condition is known for urine that turns **dark brown or black** upon standing or when exposed to air, due to the oxidation of **homogentisic acid**. - It does not produce a sweaty feet odor.
Question 425: Rate limiting step in pyrimidine synthesis?
- A. Aspartate transcarbamoylase (ATCase)
- B. Dihydroorotate dehydrogenase
- C. Dihydro-orotase
- D. Carbamoyl phosphate synthase-II (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase II (CPS-II)*** - **CPS-II** is the **committed and rate-limiting enzyme** in **de novo pyrimidine synthesis** in **mammals (including humans)** - It catalyzes the formation of **carbamoyl phosphate** from glutamine, CO₂, and 2 ATP in the **cytoplasm** - This is the **first committed step** and the main **regulatory checkpoint**, inhibited by UTP (feedback inhibition) and activated by PRPP and ATP - CPS-II is part of the **CAD complex** (carbamoyl phosphate synthetase, aspartate transcarbamoylase, dihydroorotase) in mammals *Aspartate transcarbamoylase (ATCase)* - ATCase catalyzes the **second step**: condensation of carbamoyl phosphate with aspartate to form carbamoyl aspartate - While ATCase is the **rate-limiting step in bacteria** (E. coli), in **mammals** it is part of the CAD complex and **not the primary regulatory step** - This option is incorrect for human/mammalian biochemistry tested in NEET PG *Dihydro-orotase* - The **third enzyme** in the pathway, converting carbamoyl aspartate to dihydroorotate - Part of the CAD complex in mammals but **not the rate-limiting step** *Dihydroorotate dehydrogenase* - Catalyzes the **fourth step**: oxidation of dihydroorotate to orotate - Located on the **outer surface of the inner mitochondrial membrane** (only mitochondrial enzyme in the pathway) - Important enzyme but **not rate-limiting**
Question 426: Hereditary orotic aciduria Type-I is due to deficiency of?
- A. Orotate phosphoribosyl transferase
- B. UMP synthase (Correct Answer)
- C. Orotic acid decarboxylase
- D. All of the options
Explanation: ***UMP synthase*** - Hereditary orotic aciduria Type-I is caused by a deficiency of the **bifunctional enzyme UMP synthase** (also called UMP synthase complex). - UMP synthase catalyzes two sequential reactions in the *de novo* pyrimidine synthesis pathway: 1. **OPRT activity**: Converts orotate → orotidine 5'-monophosphate (OMP) 2. **ODC activity**: Converts OMP → uridine 5'-monophosphate (UMP) - This is the **most precise and complete answer** as it identifies the actual enzyme complex that is deficient. - **Clinical features**: Megaloblastic anemia, growth retardation, immunodeficiency; responds to oral uridine supplementation. *Orotate phosphoribosyl transferase* - This represents only **one of the two catalytic activities** of the UMP synthase enzyme (the first step). - While this activity is indeed deficient in Type-I orotic aciduria, naming only this activity is **incomplete** because the enzyme has two functions. - This would be a **partial answer** rather than the complete enzyme name. *Orotic acid decarboxylase* - This represents only **the second catalytic activity** of the UMP synthase enzyme (converts OMP to UMP). - Like OPRT, this activity is also deficient, but naming only this component is **incomplete**. - **Type II orotic aciduria** (extremely rare) involves isolated ODC deficiency without OPRT deficiency. *All of the options* - While technically both OPRT and ODC activities are affected in Type-I orotic aciduria, the **standard nomenclature** refers to the deficient enzyme as **"UMP synthase"** - the name of the complete bifunctional enzyme. - In medical terminology and examination context, we identify enzyme deficiencies by the **name of the enzyme complex**, not by listing all its individual catalytic activities. - Therefore, **"UMP synthase"** is the single most accurate and complete answer.
Question 427: Which of the following molecular interactions are found in the structure of DNA?
- A. Hydrogen bond
- B. Glycosidic bond
- C. Covalent interactions
- D. All of the options (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***All of the options*** - All three types of molecular interactions listed are present in DNA structure, making this the correct answer. - **Hydrogen bonds** hold together the two strands of the DNA double helix, forming between complementary base pairs (A-T with 2 hydrogen bonds, G-C with 3 hydrogen bonds). - **Glycosidic bonds** (N-glycosidic bonds) link the nitrogenous bases to the C1' carbon of the deoxyribose sugar in each nucleotide. - **Covalent interactions** (phosphodiester bonds) form the strong, stable sugar-phosphate backbone by linking the 3' hydroxyl group of one sugar to the 5' phosphate group of the next. *Hydrogen bond* - This is a **true statement** - hydrogen bonds are essential structural components of DNA. - However, this option alone is **incomplete** as DNA structure also contains glycosidic bonds and covalent phosphodiester bonds. - If only hydrogen bonds were present, there would be no nucleotides or backbone structure. *Glycosidic bond* - This is a **true statement** - glycosidic bonds are present in every nucleotide of DNA. - However, this option alone is **incomplete** as DNA also requires hydrogen bonds for base pairing and phosphodiester bonds for the backbone. - Without other bonds, individual nucleotides could not form a functional double helix. *Covalent interactions* - This is a **true statement** - covalent phosphodiester bonds form the DNA backbone within each strand. - However, this option alone is **incomplete** as it doesn't account for glycosidic bonds (nucleotide formation) or hydrogen bonds (strand pairing). - While the strongest bonds in DNA, they alone cannot create the complete double helix structure.
Pathology
1 questionsIn glomerulus subendothelial deposits are seen in?
NEET-PG 2013 - Pathology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 421: In glomerulus subendothelial deposits are seen in?
- A. Goodpasture syndrome (linear IgG deposits in the basement membrane)
- B. MPGN type I (subendothelial deposits) (Correct Answer)
- C. MPGN type II (intramembranous deposits)
- D. IgA nephropathy (mesangial IgA deposits)
Explanation: ***MPGN type I*** - **Subendothelial deposits** are a hallmark of MPGN type I, often associated with **immune complex deposition** [1]. - This condition can present with **hematuria**, **proteinuria**, and can be triggered by infections or autoimmune diseases [1]. *Good pasture syndrome* - Primarily involves **anti-GBM antibodies** leading to **glomerulonephritis** and pulmonary hemorrhage, not subendothelial deposits. - Typically, it presents with **crescent formation** in the glomeruli rather than deposits. *MPGN type II* - Characterized by **dense deposit disease**, it features **intramembranous** rather than subendothelial deposits [1]. - It is often associated with **C3 nephritic factor** and does not show classic subendothelial pathology. *IgA nephropathy* - Characterized by **IgA deposits** primarily in the **mesangium**, not subendothelially. - It presents with **hematuria** and recurrent episodes of **macrohematuria**, especially after infections. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Kidney, pp. 925-927.
Pharmacology
1 questionsWhich of the following substances is not classified as a carcinogen for bladder cancer?
NEET-PG 2013 - Pharmacology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 421: Which of the following substances is not classified as a carcinogen for bladder cancer?
- A. Acrolein
- B. Phenacetin
- C. Benzidine
- D. Isopropyl alcohol (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Isopropyl alcohol*** - Research does not link **isopropyl alcohol** to an increased risk of bladder cancer, making it a non-carcinogenic substance in this context. - It is commonly used as a solvent and antiseptic, but has not shown **urogenic carcinogenicity** in studies. *Phenacetin* - **Phenacetin** is an analgesic that has been associated with an increased risk of bladder cancer, particularly due to its metabolite, which can be nephrotoxic. - Its use has significantly declined due to its carcinogenic effects on the urinary system. *Benzidine* - **Benzidine** is a well-known bladder carcinogen, primarily linked to the dye industry, where exposure has led to increased rates of bladder cancer [1]. - This substance has been implicated in **urothelial carcinoma** due to its mutagenic properties. *Acrolein* - **Acrolein** is a toxic compound that can cause bladder irritation and has been studied for its potential carcinogenic effects related to bladder cancer. - It is released during the combustion of materials and is known to contribute to **chemical injury** in the bladder. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. (Basic Pathology) introduces the student to key general principles of pathology, both as a medical science and as a clinical activity with a vital role in patient care. Part 2 (Disease Mechanisms) provides fundamental knowledge about the cellular and molecular processes involved in diseases, providing the rationale for their treatment. Part 3 (Systematic Pathology) deals in detail with specific diseases, with emphasis on the clinically important aspects., pp. 217-218.