Anatomy
1 questionsWhich muscle receives a muscular branch from the ulnar nerve?
NEET-PG 2013 - Anatomy NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 251: Which muscle receives a muscular branch from the ulnar nerve?
- A. Both FCU and FDP (Correct Answer)
- B. FCU
- C. None of the options
- D. FDP
Explanation: ***Both FCU and FDP*** - The **flexor carpi ulnaris (FCU)** is solely innervated by the **ulnar nerve** in the forearm. - The **flexor digitorum profundus (FDP)** has dual innervation: the **ulnar nerve** supplies the medial half (tendons to ring and little fingers), while the anterior interosseous nerve (branch of median nerve) supplies the lateral half (tendons to index and middle fingers). - Both muscles receive muscular branches from the ulnar nerve, making this the most complete and accurate answer. *FCU* - While the FCU does receive innervation from the ulnar nerve (and only the ulnar nerve), this option is incorrect because the FDP also receives branches from the ulnar nerve. - Selecting only FCU ignores the dual innervation of FDP and is therefore an incomplete answer when "Both FCU and FDP" is available. *FDP* - While the medial half of FDP does receive innervation from the ulnar nerve, this option is incorrect because FCU also receives innervation from the ulnar nerve. - Selecting only FDP ignores the complete innervation of FCU and is therefore an incomplete answer when "Both FCU and FDP" is available. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because both the **flexor carpi ulnaris** and the medial portion of the **flexor digitorum profundus** definitively receive muscular branches from the ulnar nerve. - The ulnar nerve provides motor innervation to these specific forearm muscles before continuing into the hand.
Biochemistry
1 questionsWhich of the following is not an androgen?
NEET-PG 2013 - Biochemistry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 251: Which of the following is not an androgen?
- A. 17α-hydroxyprogesterone (Correct Answer)
- B. Testosterone
- C. Dihydrotestosterone
- D. Androstenedione
Explanation: ***17α-hydroxyprogesterone*** - This is a **progesterone derivative** and an intermediate in the synthesis of androgens and corticosteroids, but it does **not possess significant androgenic activity** itself. - Its primary role is as a precursor, rather than a direct androgen. *Testosterone* - **Testosterone** is the **primary male sex hormone** and a potent androgen, responsible for the development of male secondary sexual characteristics. - It plays crucial roles in muscle mass, bone density, libido, and erythropoiesis. *Dihydrotestosterone* - **Dihydrotestosterone (DHT)** is a potent androgen, formed from testosterone by the enzyme 5α-reductase. - DHT is responsible for the development of external male genitalia during fetal development and contributes to prostate growth and male pattern baldness in adults. *Androstenedione* - **Androstenedione** is a **weak androgen** and an important **precursor hormone** in the biosynthesis of testosterone and estrogens. - It is produced in the adrenal glands and gonads, serving as an intermediate step in steroidogenesis.
Dental
1 questionsWhich subtype of Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML) is most commonly associated with gum hypertrophy?
NEET-PG 2013 - Dental NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 251: Which subtype of Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML) is most commonly associated with gum hypertrophy?
- A. Acute Myeloid Leukemia M2
- B. Acute Myeloid Leukemia M3
- C. Acute Myeloid Leukemia M4 (Correct Answer)
- D. Acute Myeloid Leukemia M1
Explanation: ***M4*** - **Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML) M4** is associated with **monocytic differentiation**, leading to gum hypertrophy due to infiltration of the gums by leukemic cells [1]. - Patients may present with **gingival bleeding**, pain, and swelling in addition to other systemic symptoms of leukemia. *M3* - Known as **acute promyelocytic leukemia**, it typically presents with **coagulopathy** and not gum hypertrophy [1]. - Characterized by **promyelocytes** with heavy granulation and the presence of **faggot cells** (auer rods) [1]. *M2* - Represents a **myeloblastic type** of acute leukemia but is less commonly associated with **gingival hyperplasia**. - Associated with **more typical myeloid features** and presents with **anemia** and **thrombocytopenia**. *M1* - This is a **minimally differentiated type** of acute myeloid leukemia with **myeloblasts** and no significant differentiating features like gum hypertrophy. - Often presents with **rapid onset of symptoms** related to bone marrow failure, rather than localized gum issues. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Diseases of White Blood Cells, Lymph Nodes, Spleen, and Thymus, pp. 620-622.
Internal Medicine
1 questionsThalassemia gives protection against ?
NEET-PG 2013 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 251: Thalassemia gives protection against ?
- A. Protection against filaria
- B. Protection against kala-azar
- C. Protection against leptospirosis
- D. Protection against malaria (Correct Answer)
Explanation: Protection against malaria - Individuals with thalassemia, particularly thalassemia trait, have some degree of protection against severe forms of malaria, specifically Plasmodium falciparum [1]. - The altered red blood cell structure and reduced hemoglobin content in thalassemia make the red blood cells less hospitable for the parasites, hindering their replication and survival [1]. Protection against filaria - Filaria is caused by parasitic worms (nematodes) transmitted by mosquitoes, leading to lymphatic filariasis (elephantiasis) or onchocerciasis (river blindness). - Thalassemia's primary impact is on red blood cell health and oxygen transport, offering no known protective effect against nematode infections or their associated pathology. Protection against kala-azar - Kala-azar (visceral leishmaniasis) is caused by Leishmania parasites transmitted by sandflies, primarily affecting the reticuloendothelial system (spleen, liver, bone marrow). - There is no established scientific evidence indicating that thalassemia provides protection against Leishmania infections or their clinical manifestations. Protection against leptospirosis - Leptospirosis is a bacterial infection caused by Leptospira bacteria, typically acquired through contact with contaminated water or animal urine. - Thalassemia is a genetic blood disorder; its physiological effects are unrelated to the mechanisms of infection or immunity against bacterial pathogens like Leptospira.
Pathology
5 questionsWhich of the following statements about sickle cell anemia is false?
Intracorpuscular hemolytic anemia is seen in ?
In which condition are Pseudo-Pelger-Huët cells typically seen?
Which is not a feature of paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria?
Donath-Landsteiner antibody is seen in?
NEET-PG 2013 - Pathology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 251: Which of the following statements about sickle cell anemia is false?
- A. Sickle cells are present in sickle cell anemia.
- B. Target cells are commonly seen in sickle cell anemia.
- C. Ringed sideroblasts are associated with sickle cell anemia. (Correct Answer)
- D. Howell Jolly bodies can be found in sickle cell anemia.
Explanation: ***Ringed sideroblast*** - **Ringed sideroblasts** are not typically associated with sickle cell anemia; they are indicative of disorders like **sideroblastic anemia**. - In sickle cell anemia, the primary findings include **hemolysis** and ineffective erythropoiesis, not ringed sideroblasts [3]. *Howell jolly bodies* - These bodies are remnants of nuclear material and can be found in individuals with **spleen dysfunction**, which can occur in sickle cell anemia [1]. - They are actually a common finding due to **hyposplenism** or **asplenia** in patients with sickle cell disease [2]. *Sickle cells* - The presence of **sickle-shaped red blood cells** is a hallmark of sickle cell anemia, caused by the mutation in the **beta-globin chain** [3]. - These sickle cells are responsible for the characteristic complications of the disease, such as **vaso-occlusive crises** [1][3]. *Target cells* - Target cells, or **codocytes**, are often seen in disorders like **thalassemia** and liver disease, and can also be present in sickle cell anemia. - They are formed due to an increase in the **surface area to volume ratio** of red blood cells, often secondary to **membrane abnormalities** seen in sickle cell changes [2]. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Red Blood Cell and Bleeding Disorders, pp. 644-646. [2] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Diseases Of The Urinary And Male Genital Tracts, pp. 570-571. [3] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Blood And Bone Marrow Disease, pp. 598-599.
Question 252: Intracorpuscular hemolytic anemia is seen in ?
- A. Thalassemia (Correct Answer)
- B. Infection
- C. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)
- D. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
Explanation: ***Thalassemia*** - Thalassemia is characterized by **intracorpuscular hemolysis** due to defective hemoglobin synthesis, leading to premature destruction of red blood cells [1][2]. - It manifests as **microcytic anemia** with associated **extramedullary erythropoiesis** in severe cases [1]. *Autoimmune hemolytic anemia* - This condition leads to **extravascular hemolysis**, primarily affecting red blood cells in the spleen, not within the plasma [2]. - It is often associated with **positive direct Coombs test**, indicating reactants on the RBC surface. *TIP* - TIP (Thrombotic Microangiopathy) primarily involves **microangiopathic hemolytic anemia** and is not classified as intracorpuscular [2]. - The hemolysis in TIP occurs due to **microthrombi**, causing damage to red blood cells as they pass through narrowed vessels. *Infection* - Infections can lead to **hemolysis**, but this is typically **extravascular** due to splenic clearance or due to other mechanisms like **malaria** [2]. - The hemolytic mechanism is not intracorpuscular, as seen in conditions like thalassemia. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Blood And Bone Marrow Disease, pp. 601-602. [2] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Blood And Bone Marrow Disease, pp. 596-597.
Question 253: In which condition are Pseudo-Pelger-Huët cells typically seen?
- A. Hairy cell leukemia
- B. Multiple myeloma
- C. Hodgkin's lymphoma
- D. Myelodysplastic syndrome (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Mylodysplastic syndrome*** - Pseudo-Pelger-Huet cells are characteristic and often observed in myelodysplastic syndromes, indicating an ineffective hematopoiesis [1]. - These cells appear as **hyposegmented neutrophils** and are associated with dysplastic changes in the bone marrow [1]. *Hairy cell leukemia* - Typically presents with **hairy cells** in peripheral blood and often involves splenomegaly; pseudo-Pelger-Huet cells are not usual in this condition. - Associated with **PANCYTOPENIA** and reticulin fibrosis, differing from myelodysplastic syndrome. *Hodgkin's lymphoma* - Characterized by the presence of **Reed-Sternberg cells** and typically involves lymphadenopathy. - Peripheral blood findings generally do not include pseudo-Pelger-Huet cells; the focus is on lymphatic tissue. *Multiple myeloma* - Commonly presents with **plasma cells** and related symptoms like bone pain and renal failure, not associated with pseudo-Pelger-Huet cells. - It primarily causes an increase in monoclonal proteins rather than dysplastic changes seen in myelodysplastic syndrome. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Blood And Bone Marrow Disease, pp. 613-614.
Question 254: Which is not a feature of paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria?
- A. Thrombocytopenia
- B. Hemolysis
- C. Increased LAP score (Correct Answer)
- D. Thrombosis
Explanation: ***Increased LAP score*** - In paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria, the **LAP score** is typically **low** due to ineffective hematopoiesis and not elevated. - The presence of a low LAP score is inconsistent with the features of this condition, making it the correct choice. *Thrombosis* - Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria is **associated with a high risk of thrombosis**, particularly in the **venous system** [2]. - This is due to **increased platelet activation** and excessive thrombin generation resulting from hemolysis. *Hemolysis* - **Hemolysis** is a hallmark feature of paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria, where there is **destruction of red blood cells** [2,3]. - Patients often present with signs of hemolytic anemia including **elevated bilirubin** and **low haptoglobin** levels. *Thrombocytopenia* - **Thrombocytopenia** is a common finding in paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria due to **expanded consumption** of platelets during episodes of hemolysis. - This can lead to an **increased risk of bleeding** in affected patients. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Blood And Bone Marrow Disease, pp. 601-602. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Red Blood Cell and Bleeding Disorders, pp. 650-651.
Question 255: Donath-Landsteiner antibody is seen in?
- A. PNH
- B. Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia
- C. Malaria
- D. Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria*** - **Donath-Landsteiner antibody** is a **biphasic IgG autoantibody** that binds to red blood cells in the cold and causes **hemolysis** upon warming, characteristic of paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria. - This antibody has **anti-P specificity**, meaning it targets the P antigen on red blood cells, leading to complement activation and cell lysis. *PNH* - **Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria** (PNH) is characterized by a deficiency in **GPI-anchored proteins** on red blood cells, notably **CD55** and **CD59**, making them susceptible to complement-mediated lysis. - It is not associated with the Donath-Landsteiner antibody; rather, it is identified by **flow cytometry** showing absence of CD55/CD59. *Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia* - This is a **B-cell lymphoma** characterized by the overproduction of **monoclonal IgM antibodies**, leading to hyperviscosity syndrome and other symptoms. - It does not involve Donath-Landsteiner antibodies or cold-induced hemolysis in the same manner as paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria. *Malaria* - **Malaria** is caused by **Plasmodium parasites** that infect and destroy red blood cells, leading to hemolytic anemia and fever. - While it causes **hemolysis**, it is not mediated by the Donath-Landsteiner antibody; the destruction is primarily due to parasitic replication and immune responses against infected cells.
Physiology
1 questionsWhich of the following statements about thyroid hormone receptors is correct?
NEET-PG 2013 - Physiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 251: Which of the following statements about thyroid hormone receptors is correct?
- A. They directly bind to thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH)
- B. They directly bind to thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
- C. They cause nuclear transcription after binding with T4
- D. They are intracellular receptors that mediate gene transcription after binding with T3 or T4, but their primary action is through T3. (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***They are intracellular receptors that mediate gene transcription after binding with T3 or T4, but their primary action is through T3.*** - **Thyroid hormone receptors** are indeed **intracellular** and act as **ligand-activated transcription factors**, regulating gene expression. - While both **T3** and **T4** can bind, **T3 (triiodothyronine)** is the more potent and active form, binding with much higher affinity to the receptors to exert its primary metabolic effects. *They directly bind to thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH)* - **TRH (thyrotropin-releasing hormone)** is produced by the hypothalamus and acts on the **pituitary gland** to stimulate TSH release, not directly on thyroid hormone receptors. - Thyroid hormone receptors bind to thyroid hormones (**T3 and T4**), not to the hypothalamic releasing hormones like TRH. *They directly bind to thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)* - **TSH (thyroid-stimulating hormone)** is produced by the pituitary gland and primarily acts on receptors located on the **thyroid gland cells** to stimulate thyroid hormone synthesis and release. - Thyroid hormone receptors are distinct from TSH receptors and bind to the hormones themselves (**T3/T4**), not the stimulating hormone TSH. *Causes nuclear transcription after binding with T4* - While **T4 (thyroxine)** can bind to thyroid hormone receptors, it is primarily a **prohormone**. - T4 is largely converted to the more active **T3** within target cells, and **T3** is the main mediator of nuclear transcription through these receptors.