Anatomy
7 questionsA surgeon removes a part of the liver located to the left of the falciform ligament. Which segments of the liver are removed?
What is the most dependent part of the peritoneal cavity in a female in the standing position?
All pass through jugular foramen except
Which of the following is NOT a content of the occipital triangle?
Which muscle is the deepest in the anterior neck region?
Vertebral arteries of both sides unite to form
What anatomical structure does the pineal gland form part of?
NEET-PG 2013 - Anatomy NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 221: A surgeon removes a part of the liver located to the left of the falciform ligament. Which segments of the liver are removed?
- A. Segments I & IV
- B. Segments V & VI
- C. Segments VII & VIII
- D. Segments II & III (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Segments II & III*** - The liver segments are defined by their **vascular supply** originating from the **portal vein** and **hepatic artery**, and their **biliary drainage** [1]. - The **falciform ligament** separates the **left lobe** of the liver into **medial** and **lateral** sections. The portion to its left corresponds to the lateral left lobe, which includes **segments II and III** [1, 2]. *Segments I & IV* - **Segment I** (`caudate lobe`) is located **posteriorly**, independent of the falciform ligament, and is supplied by both the left and right portal and hepatic arterial systems [1]. - **Segment IV** (`quadrate lobe`) is part of the **medial left lobe** and is situated to the **right of the falciform ligament** [1]. *Segments V & VI* - These segments are located in the **right lobe** of the liver, which is to the **right of the main portal fissure**, and are not associated with the falciform ligament's immediate left. - **Segment V** is **anterior** and **inferior**, and **Segment VI** is **posterior** and **inferior** within the right lobe. *Segments VII & VIII* - These segments are also located in the **right lobe** of the liver, specifically in the **superior** aspects [1]. - **Segment VII** is **posterior** and **superior**, while **Segment VIII** is **anterior** and **superior** in the right lobe, far from the falciform ligament.
Question 222: What is the most dependent part of the peritoneal cavity in a female in the standing position?
- A. Vesicouterine pouch
- B. Paracolic gutter
- C. Pouch of Douglas (Correct Answer)
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Pouch of Douglas*** - The **rectouterine pouch** (Pouch of Douglas) is the most dependent part of the peritoneal cavity in females when standing. - It lies between the **rectum posteriorly** and the **uterus anteriorly**, extending down to the posterior fornix of the vagina [1]. - Due to gravity, any free fluid in the peritoneal cavity (blood, pus, ascitic fluid) collects here in the upright position. - **Clinical significance:** This is why culdocentesis (needle aspiration through the posterior vaginal fornix) can detect intraperitoneal fluid [1]. *Vesicouterine pouch* - Located between the **uterus posteriorly** and the **bladder anteriorly** [1]. - It is **superior** to the Pouch of Douglas and therefore not the most dependent part. - Fluid would collect in the Pouch of Douglas before reaching this pouch in a standing position. *Paracolic gutter* - The **paracolic gutters** are peritoneal recesses lateral to the ascending and descending colon. - While they can collect fluid, they are **not the lowest point** in the peritoneal cavity in an upright position. - The right paracolic gutter can serve as a pathway for fluid to spread between the pelvis and subphrenic spaces. *None of the options* - This is incorrect as the **Pouch of Douglas** is definitively the most dependent part of the peritoneal cavity in females in the standing position. - It is a well-established anatomical fact taught in all standard anatomy textbooks.
Question 223: All pass through jugular foramen except
- A. Mandibular nerve (Correct Answer)
- B. Vagus nerve
- C. Internal jugular vein
- D. Glossopharyngeal nerve
Explanation: ***Mandibular nerve*** - The **mandibular nerve** (CN V3) exits the skull through the **foramen ovale**, not the jugular foramen. - It is a branch of the **trigeminal nerve** and is responsible for motor innervation to muscles of mastication and sensory innervation to the lower face and mouth. *Glossopharyngeal nerve* - The **glossopharyngeal nerve** (CN IX) is one of the three cranial nerves that exit through the **jugular foramen**. - It provides motor, sensory, and parasympathetic innervation including taste from posterior third of tongue and motor to stylopharyngeus muscle. *Vagus nerve* - The **vagus nerve** (CN X) is one of the major cranial nerves that exits the skull through the **jugular foramen**. - It provides extensive motor, sensory, and parasympathetic innervation to the head, neck, thorax, and abdomen. *Internal jugular vein* - The **internal jugular vein** is formed at the jugular foramen by the continuation of the **sigmoid sinus**, and it exits the skull through this foramen. - It is one of the primary venous drainage pathways for the brain.
Question 224: Which of the following is NOT a content of the occipital triangle?
- A. Lesser occipital nerve
- B. Occipital artery
- C. Suprascapular nerve (Correct Answer)
- D. Great auricular nerve
Explanation: Suprascapular nerve - The **suprascapular nerve** originates from the brachial plexus and supplies the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles; it travels through the suprascapular notch and is not found within the occipital triangle. - Its primary course and innervation are associated with the shoulder, entirely separate from the neck region defining the occipital triangle. *Great auricular nerve* - The **great auricular nerve** emerges from the cervical plexus and supplies sensory innervation to the skin over the parotid gland, mastoid process, and auricle, courses superficially across the sternocleidomastoid in the region of the occipital triangle. - It is a recognized content of the posterior triangle of the neck, which encompasses the occipital triangle. *Lesser occipital nerve* - The **lesser occipital nerve** arises from the cervical plexus at C2 and C3, providing sensory innervation to the skin of the neck and scalp posterior to the auricle. - It ascends along the posterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle, placing it within the boundaries of the occipital triangle. *Occipital artery* - The **occipital artery** is a branch of the external carotid artery that supplies blood to the posterior scalp. - It traverses the apex of the posterior triangle (including the occipital triangle) as it ascends to the back of the head.
Question 225: Which muscle is the deepest in the anterior neck region?
- A. Sternocleidomastoid
- B. Platysma
- C. Longus colli (Correct Answer)
- D. Trapezius
Explanation: ***Longus colli*** - The **longus colli** muscle is the **deepest muscle** located in the anterior neck region, running along the front of the cervical vertebral column from C1 to T3. - It lies in the **prevertebral layer**, deep to all other anterior neck structures including the carotid sheath, visceral compartment, and superficial muscles. - Its position directly anterior to the vertebral bodies makes it the deepest anterior neck muscle. *Platysma* - The platysma is the **most superficial muscle** of the neck, located just beneath the skin in the superficial fascia. - It is not a deep muscle and lies superficial to all other neck muscles. *Sternocleidomastoid* - The sternocleidomastoid is enclosed within the **investing layer of deep cervical fascia**, making it relatively superficial. - While prominent in the anterior and lateral neck, it is not the deepest anterior neck muscle. *Trapezius* - The trapezius is a large, **superficial muscle of the back and posterior neck**. - It is not located in the anterior neck and is a superficial, not deep, muscle.
Question 226: Vertebral arteries of both sides unite to form
- A. Anterior spinal artery
- B. Posterior spinal artery
- C. Medullary artery
- D. Basilar artery (Correct Answer)
Explanation: Basilar artery - The paired vertebral arteries ascend through the neck via the transverse foramina of cervical vertebrae and enter the skull through the foramen magnum. - At the level of the pontomedullary junction, the two vertebral arteries merge to form a single basilar artery. Anterior spinal artery - The anterior spinal artery is formed by the union of two small branches derived from each vertebral artery near their intracranial origin. - It supplies the anterior two-thirds of the spinal cord, running along the anterior median fissure. Posterior spinal artery - The posterior spinal arteries are typically two vessels, one arising from each vertebral artery (or less commonly from the posterior inferior cerebellar artery). - They supply the posterior one-third of the spinal cord and do not form a single major merged vessel in the brainstem. Medullary artery - There is no single major artery termed the "medullary artery" formed by the union of the vertebral arteries. - The medulla oblongata is supplied by branches directly from the vertebral arteries and the basilar artery, such as the posterior inferior cerebellar artery (PICA) and direct medullary branches.
Question 227: What anatomical structure does the pineal gland form part of?
- A. Part of the anterior wall of the third ventricle
- B. Part of the roof of the third ventricle (Correct Answer)
- C. Part of the floor of the third ventricle
- D. Part of the posterior wall of the third ventricle
Explanation: **_Part of the roof of the third ventricle_** - The **pineal gland** is a small, pinecone-shaped endocrine gland that forms part of the **roof of the third ventricle** [1]. - It is attached to the roof by the **pineal stalk** and projects posteriorly from the **epithalamus**. - The roof of the third ventricle consists of the **tela choroidea**, the **pineal gland**, and the **choroid plexus** [1]. - The pineal gland regulates circadian rhythms through **melatonin** secretion. *Part of the posterior wall of the third ventricle* - The **posterior wall** of the third ventricle is formed by the **posterior commissure**, the **pineal recess**, and the **habenular commissure**. - While the pineal gland is located posteriorly, it is anatomically classified as part of the roof, not the posterior wall itself. *Part of the anterior wall of the third ventricle* - The **anterior wall** is formed by the **lamina terminalis**, **anterior commissure**, and columns of the fornix. - This is located at the opposite end of the third ventricle from the pineal gland. *Part of the floor of the third ventricle* - The **floor** is formed by structures of the **hypothalamus**, including the **optic chiasm**, **tuber cinereum**, **infundibulum**, and **mammillary bodies**. - The pineal gland is situated dorsally (superiorly), not in the floor.
Pathology
2 questionsGastric carcinoma is associated with all of the following EXCEPT:
Linitis plastica is a type of ?
NEET-PG 2013 - Pathology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 221: Gastric carcinoma is associated with all of the following EXCEPT:
- A. Over expression of C-met
- B. Inactivation of p53
- C. Over expression of C-erb
- D. Activation of RAS (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Activation of RAS*** - **RAS mutations** are relatively uncommon in gastric carcinoma compared to other gastrointestinal malignancies. While KRAS mutations can occur in approximately 10-15% of gastric cancers (particularly intestinal type), they are **far less frequent** than in **pancreatic adenocarcinoma** (~90%) or **colorectal carcinoma** (~40%). - In the context of gastric carcinoma, RAS pathway alterations are **not considered a major oncogenic driver** compared to the other molecular changes listed, making this the **LEAST characteristically associated** alteration. *Inactivation of p53* - **Inactivation of the p53 tumor suppressor gene** is one of the most frequent molecular events in gastric carcinoma, occurring in approximately **50-60% of cases**. - Loss of p53 function leads to genomic instability, uncontrolled cell proliferation, and resistance to apoptosis, contributing significantly to **tumorigenesis** and **poor prognosis**. *Over expression of C-met* - **Overexpression of C-MET**, a receptor tyrosine kinase for hepatocyte growth factor (HGF), is commonly observed in gastric carcinoma (30-40% of cases) and is strongly linked to **tumor growth**, **invasion**, and **metastasis**. - C-MET amplification and overexpression promote cell proliferation, survival, migration, and angiogenesis, making it an important **therapeutic target** in advanced gastric cancer. *Over expression of C-erb* - **Overexpression of C-erbB-2 (HER2/neu)** is found in approximately **10-20% of gastric adenocarcinomas**, particularly the intestinal type. - HER2 amplification or overexpression is a significant **prognostic and predictive biomarker**, and is specifically targeted by **trastuzumab** (Herceptin) therapy in HER2-positive advanced gastric cancer, improving survival outcomes.
Question 222: Linitis plastica is a type of ?
- A. Benign ulcer
- B. GIST
- C. Manifestation of gastric cancer (Correct Answer)
- D. Plastic-like appearance of stomach lining
Explanation: ***Diffuse carcinoma of stomach*** - Linitis plastica is a specific type of **gastric cancer** characterized by **thickening of the stomach wall**, leading to a rigid, non-distensible abdomen [1]. - It often presents with **significant weight loss** and **early satiety**, distinguishing it from other stomach conditions. *Benign ulcer* - Benign ulcers do not cause the **extensive wall thickening** or **desmoplastic response** seen in linitis plastica [1]. - They typically heal with treatment and are associated with typical ulcer symptoms, unlike the progressive nature of linitis plastica. *Plastic like lining of stomach* - While linitis plastica describes a **plastic-like appearance**, it is not classified as a mere lining change but rather a sign of underlying **malignancy** [1]. - This option misrepresents it as a benign condition rather than a serious **stomach adenocarcinoma**. *GIST* - Gastrointestinal stromal tumors (GIST) are **soft tissue tumors** of mesenchymal origin, differing fundamentally from the **invasive** characteristics of linitis plastica [2]. - GISTs typically present with **mass lesions** in the GI tract, not the diffuse rigidity seen in linitis plastica [1]. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Gastrointestinal Tract, pp. 779-780. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Gastrointestinal Tract, p. 779.
Surgery
1 questionsWhich condition typically presents with irregular, hard palpable masses in the breast?
NEET-PG 2013 - Surgery NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 221: Which condition typically presents with irregular, hard palpable masses in the breast?
- A. Non comedo DCIS
- B. Fibroadenoma
- C. Invasive ductal carcinoma (Correct Answer)
- D. Comedocarcinoma
Explanation: ***Paget's disease*** - Paget's disease of the breast leads to **palpable abnormalities** such as skin changes and underlying mass formation [1]. - Often presents with **nipple discharge** and alterations in the areola, indicating an underlying malignancy [2]. *Non comedo DCIS* - Non comedo ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) typically presents with **microscopic changes** and lacks palpable masses. - Frequently asymptomatic and may not cause any **significant clinical findings** or changes in the breast. *None* - This option suggests the absence of a related condition, which does not address the query about a type of DCIS causing a **palpable abnormality**. - In the context of DCIS, there are sure conditions (like Paget's) that **do cause palpable changes**. *Comedocarcinoma* - This type of DCIS is characterized by **necrosis and calcifications**, rather than a palpable mass. - While potentially aggressive, it usually does not present with noticeable **palpable abnormalities** like Paget's disease. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Breast, pp. 1061-1062. [2] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Liver And Biliary System Disease, pp. 456-457.