Obstetrics and Gynecology
10 questionsWhat percentage of women typically deliver on their Estimated Due Date (EDD)?
In which obstetric condition is assisted head delivery typically performed?
At what point does the uterus return to being classified as a pelvic organ after pregnancy?
What is the expected rate of turnover of amniotic fluid in a pregnant woman?
What is the recommended management for jaundice due to obstetric cholestasis in the third trimester?
What is the purpose of the Prague maneuver in obstetrics?
What maneuver is used to deliver the head of a baby during a breech delivery?
What is a potential risk for pregnant women who undertake long journeys with prolonged sitting?
What is Hegar's sign in obstetrics?
What is the best parameter for estimating fetal age by ultrasound in the third trimester?
NEET-PG 2013 - Obstetrics and Gynecology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1191: What percentage of women typically deliver on their Estimated Due Date (EDD)?
- A. 15%
- B. 5% (Correct Answer)
- C. 20%
- D. 10%
Explanation: ***5%*** - Only about **5% of women** deliver on their **exact Estimated Due Date (EDD)**. - The EDD is calculated using **Naegele's rule** (280 days from LMP) and serves as an **approximation** rather than a precise prediction. - Most women deliver within a **37-42 week window**, with the majority occurring in the **2 weeks before or after** the EDD. - This reflects the **natural biological variation** in pregnancy duration. *10%* - This percentage is **higher than the actual rate** of delivery on the exact EDD. - While 10% might seem plausible for deliveries within a few days of the EDD, it overestimates delivery on that specific date. *15%* - This percentage **significantly overestimates** the likelihood of delivering precisely on the EDD. - The probability of birth on one specific day out of a several-week delivery window is relatively low. *20%* - This is a substantial **overestimation** of the probability of delivering on the EDD. - The EDD represents a **single day** in a term pregnancy window (37-42 weeks), making such a high percentage statistically unlikely.
Question 1192: In which obstetric condition is assisted head delivery typically performed?
- A. Shoulder dystocia
- B. Breech presentation (Correct Answer)
- C. Transverse lie
- D. Normal delivery
Explanation: ***Breech presentation*** - In a **breech presentation**, the baby's buttocks or feet are delivered first, necessitating assisted head delivery to prevent **head entrapment** in the maternal pelvis, which can lead to fetal hypoxia or trauma. - Techniques like the **Mauriceau-Smellie-Veit maneuver** are employed to carefully deliver the fetal head after the body. *Shoulder dystocia* - This condition involves the impaction of the fetal shoulder against the maternal symphysis pubis after the head has been delivered. - The focus of management is on delivering the shoulders, not the head, through maneuvers such as the **McRoberts maneuver** or **suprapubic pressure**. *Transverse lie* - A **transverse lie** means the baby is positioned horizontally across the uterus, preventing vaginal delivery without intervention (e.g., external cephalic version or C-section). - This position requires repositioning or surgical delivery of the entire fetus, and assisted head delivery is not the primary concern. *Normal delivery* - In a **normal (vertex) delivery**, the fetal head presents first and typically delivers spontaneously with minimal assistance. - The head usually flexes and rotates to navigate the birth canal on its own, so specific assisted head delivery techniques are not typically required.
Question 1193: At what point does the uterus return to being classified as a pelvic organ after pregnancy?
- A. 2 weeks
- B. 4 weeks
- C. 12 weeks
- D. 6 weeks (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***6 weeks*** - By **6 weeks postpartum**, the uterus typically has undergone significant involution, returning to its **pre-pregnancy size and weight**. - At this point, it is no longer palpable abdominally and descends back into the **pelvic cavity**, classifying it again as a pelvic organ. *4 weeks* - While significant involution occurs by 4 weeks, the uterus is generally still slightly enlarged and might be palpable just above the **symphysis pubis**. - It has not fully returned to its non-pregnant size or its definitive location as a purely pelvic organ at this stage. *12 weeks* - By 12 weeks postpartum, the uterus has long since returned to its pre-pregnancy size and relocated to the **pelvic cavity**; this period is past the typical time for reclassification. - Involution is generally complete earlier than 12 weeks. *2 weeks* - At 2 weeks postpartum, the uterus is still undergoing rapid **involution** but is significantly larger than its pre-pregnancy size. - It remains palpable abdominally, usually midway between the **umbilicus** and the pubic symphysis, and has not yet descended back into the pelvic cavity.
Question 1194: What is the expected rate of turnover of amniotic fluid in a pregnant woman?
- A. 500 cc/h (Correct Answer)
- B. 1 L/h
- C. 1500 cc/h
- D. 2L/h
Explanation: ***500 cc/h*** - The **amniotic fluid** undergoes a rapid and continuous turnover, with approximately **500 cc/h** being exchanged through multiple pathways. - This dynamic process ensures the constant renewal of the fluid, maintaining its critical functions for fetal development and protection. *1L/hr* - A turnover rate of 1 liter per hour is **higher than the physiological range** for normal amniotic fluid dynamics. - Such a high rate would imply an **abnormal fluid exchange**, potentially leading to imbalances. *1500 cc/h* - This rate represents an **extremely high turnover**, significantly exceeding the typical physiological exchange. - Sustained rates this high are **not consistent with normal amniotic fluid physiology** and could indicate underlying pathology. *2L/h* - A turnover rate of 2 liters per hour is **dangerously high** and far beyond the normal capacity for amniotic fluid exchange. - Such a rapid turnover would be **detrimental to fetal well-being** and is not observed in healthy pregnancies.
Question 1195: What is the recommended management for jaundice due to obstetric cholestasis in the third trimester?
- A. Induction of labour at 37 weeks
- B. Induction of labour at 42 weeks
- C. Induction of labour at 38 weeks (Correct Answer)
- D. Wait for spontaneous labour
Explanation: ***Induction of labour at 38 weeks*** - **Obstetric cholestasis (Intrahepatic Cholestasis of Pregnancy)** is associated with increased risk of **stillbirth**, particularly beyond 37-38 weeks gestation. - Induction at **37-38 weeks** is recommended to balance reducing stillbirth risk while minimizing prematurity complications. - **Current practice**: Timing depends on **bile acid levels** - delivery at 37-38 weeks for bile acids >40 μmol/L, or 38-39 weeks for milder cases (19-39 μmol/L). - This option represents the standard management approach for most cases of obstetric cholestasis. *Induction of labour at 37 weeks* - Delivery at 37 weeks is also acceptable and increasingly preferred, particularly for **severe disease** (bile acids >40 μmol/L) or when there are additional risk factors. - Both 37 and 38 weeks are within the recommended window; the choice depends on **disease severity** and individual risk assessment. - This is not incorrect, but 38 weeks represents a slightly more conservative approach balancing risks. *Induction of labour at 42 weeks* - Waiting until 42 weeks significantly increases the risk of **intrauterine fetal death (IUFD)** in pregnancies complicated by obstetric cholestasis. - Prolonged exposure to **elevated bile acids** is toxic to the fetus and increases stillbirth risk, especially after 37-38 weeks. - This approach is **contraindicated** in obstetric cholestasis. *Wait for spontaneous labour* - Expectant management beyond 38 weeks is considered **unsafe** due to the unpredictable and progressive risk of **sudden intrauterine death**. - Active management with planned delivery at 37-38 weeks is the standard of care to prevent stillbirth. - Waiting for spontaneous labor exposes the fetus to unacceptable risks.
Question 1196: What is the purpose of the Prague maneuver in obstetrics?
- A. To assess the fetal position in deep transverse arrest
- B. To extract extended arms during delivery
- C. To deliver the head in breech presentation when the fetal back is posterior (Correct Answer)
- D. To turn a fetus from breech to head-down position before labor
Explanation: ***To deliver the head in breech presentation when the fetal back is posterior*** - The **Prague maneuver** is a technique specifically designed for the extraction of the fetal head during a **breech delivery**, typically when the fetal back is in the **posterior position**. - It involves placing two fingers of one hand on the maxilla while grasping the shoulders of the fetus from behind with the other hand, allowing traction to flex and deliver the aftercoming head. - This maneuver is particularly useful when the **fetal back is posterior**, making access to the face more difficult; when the back is **anterior**, the Mauriceau-Smellie-Veit maneuver is typically preferred. *To assess the fetal position in deep transverse arrest* - **Deep transverse arrest** refers to a situation where the fetal head is arrested in the transverse diameter of the maternal pelvis; assessment primarily involves vaginal examination and ultrasound. - The Prague maneuver is a **delivery technique**, not a diagnostic assessment tool for fetal position. *To turn a fetus from breech to head-down position before labor* - Turning a fetus from a **breech to a cephalic position** before labor is typically achieved through **external cephalic version (ECV)**. - The Prague maneuver is an **intrapartum intervention** used during the actual delivery of a breech baby, not an antepartum repositioning technique. *To extract extended arms during delivery* - The extraction of **extended arms** during a breech delivery is usually managed by maneuvers such as the **Løvset maneuver** or attempting to sweep the arms down over the chest. - While arm position can affect delivery, the Prague maneuver is primarily focused on the **delivery of the aftercoming head** when the fetal back is posterior.
Question 1197: What maneuver is used to deliver the head of a baby during a breech delivery?
- A. Pinards maneuver
- B. Prague maneuver (Correct Answer)
- C. Lovsets maneuver
- D. Burn Marshall method
Explanation: ***Prague maneuver*** - The **Prague maneuver** is used to deliver the aftercoming fetal head in breech delivery when specific traction on the shoulders is needed. - **Prague I (or Prague-Veit)**: Used when the fetal **back is anterior** - the operator's fingers hook over the shoulders while traction is applied. - **Prague II**: Used when the fetal **back is posterior** - less commonly performed. - This maneuver involves supporting the fetal body while applying traction to the shoulders to facilitate head delivery. *Pinard's maneuver* - **Pinard's maneuver** is used to assist with the delivery of the fetal **legs** in a **frank or complete breech** presentation, not the head. - This maneuver involves flexing the hip and knee to bring down a foot, aiding in the delivery of the lower extremities. *Lovset's maneuver* - **Lovset's maneuver** is used during a breech delivery to assist with the delivery of the **shoulders by rotating the fetal trunk**. - It involves rotating the baby's trunk 180 degrees to bring the posterior shoulder anterior under the pubic symphysis, allowing for easier delivery of both arms and shoulders. *Burns-Marshall method* - The **Burns-Marshall method** is another technique used to deliver the aftercoming head in breech delivery. - It involves allowing the fetal body to hang by its own weight until the **nape of the neck and hairline appear** at the vulva, then lifting the body in an arc towards the mother's abdomen to deliver the head by flexion. - While this is also used for head delivery, the **Prague maneuver** involves more direct manual traction and is the answer expected for this examination context.
Question 1198: What is a potential risk for pregnant women who undertake long journeys with prolonged sitting?
- A. Venous thromboembolism
- B. Deep vein thrombosis (Correct Answer)
- C. Pulmonary embolism
- D. Leg swelling
Explanation: ***Deep vein thrombosis*** - **Pregnancy** is a **hypercoagulable state** due to increased levels of clotting factors (fibrinogen, factors VII, VIII, X) and decreased protein S activity. - **Prolonged sitting** during long journeys causes **venous stasis** in the lower extremities, which is a key component of **Virchow's triad** for thrombosis (stasis, hypercoagulability, endothelial injury). - **DVT** is the **direct and most specific pathological consequence** of prolonged immobilization during travel in pregnancy. - The risk of **VTE in pregnancy** is **4-5 times higher** than in non-pregnant women, with travel-related DVT being a recognized complication. *Venous thromboembolism* - VTE is an **umbrella term** that encompasses both **DVT and pulmonary embolism**. - While technically correct as a broader category, DVT is the **more specific and direct answer** to what prolonged sitting causes. - In medical education and clinical practice, identifying the **specific pathology** (DVT) is more appropriate than using the general category (VTE). *Pulmonary embolism* - PE is a **complication** of DVT, occurring when a thrombus dislodges and embolizes to the pulmonary circulation. - PE is a **secondary consequence**, not the **primary risk** from prolonged sitting itself. - The direct mechanism of prolonged sitting → venous stasis → **DVT formation** → potential embolization to lungs. *Leg swelling* - **Leg swelling** (edema) is a **symptom**, not a pathological diagnosis. - While leg edema can indicate DVT, it's also common in normal pregnancy due to increased venous pressure and fluid retention. - The question asks for a **risk** (pathological condition), not a symptom.
Question 1199: What is Hegar's sign in obstetrics?
- A. Uterine contractions
- B. Fetal movement
- C. Cyanosis of the vagina
- D. Softening of the uterine isthmus (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Softening of the uterine isthmus*** - **Hegar's sign** is an early presumptive sign of pregnancy characterized by the **softening of the lower uterine segment (isthmus)**, which can be palpated during a bimanual examination. - This softening makes the fundus and cervix feel like separate entities, indicating increased vascularity and changes due to hormonal influence. *Uterine contractions* - While contractions do occur during pregnancy (e.g., **Braxton Hicks contractions**), they are not what defines Hegar's sign. - **Uterine contractions** are typically associated with labor or placental abruption, not the specific softening of the isthmus. *Fetal movement* - **Fetal movement** (quickening) is a positive sign of pregnancy perceived by the mother, usually after 16-20 weeks gestation. - This is entirely distinct from Hegar's sign, which is a physical finding upon examination of the uterus. *Cyanosis of the vagina* - **Cyanosis of the vagina** and cervix is known as **Chadwick's sign**, another presumptive sign of pregnancy. - Chadwick's sign is due to increased vascularity and venous congestion, causing a bluish discoloration, but it's not the softening described in Hegar's sign.
Question 1200: What is the best parameter for estimating fetal age by ultrasound in the third trimester?
- A. Abdominal circumference
- B. Femur length
- C. Intraocular distance
- D. BPD (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***BPD (Biparietal Diameter)*** - **Biparietal diameter (BPD)** is considered the **best single parameter** among the given options for estimating fetal age in the third trimester, though all parameters become less accurate with advancing gestation. - In the third trimester, BPD accuracy is approximately **±3-4 weeks**, which is why **first trimester dating (CRL) should always be used when available** as it is most accurate (±5-7 days). - BPD is measured at the level of the thalami and cavum septum pellucidum, from outer edge of the proximal skull to the inner edge of the distal skull. - **Note**: Multiple biometric parameters used together improve accuracy more than any single measurement in late pregnancy. *Femur length* - **Femur length (FL)** is highly accurate in the **second trimester** but becomes less reliable in the third trimester due to biological variation. - It can be affected by **skeletal dysplasias** and genetic factors, leading to inaccurate age estimation. - FL is better used for assessing proportionate growth rather than dating in late pregnancy. *Abdominal circumference* - **Abdominal circumference (AC)** is primarily used for assessing **fetal growth and estimating fetal weight**, not for gestational age determination. - It is highly variable and influenced by fetal nutritional status, growth restriction, or macrosomia, making it unreliable for dating. - AC is the **most sensitive parameter for detecting growth abnormalities** (IUGR or LGA). *Intraocular distance* - **Intraocular distance (IOD)** is not a standard biometric parameter for routine gestational age estimation. - It has limited clinical utility and is occasionally used for detecting specific **fetal anomalies** (hypertelorism/hypotelorism) rather than dating. - Standard biometric parameters (BPD, HC, AC, FL) are always preferred for gestational age assessment.